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Exam Code: COG-605
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos 10 Controller Developer )
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 94 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 An administrator is creating a standard data entry form for end users. On which tab must the
administrator specify the type of information that will be shown on the rows and columns of the form?
A. Axes tab
B. Reorder tab
C. Process Layouts tab
D. Lock tab
Answer: A

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NO.2 The administrator activated the Set Status for Submission to Ready After Reconciliation and the Use
Period Locking on Company Level. What is the effect?
A. Submissions and reconciliations are locked and company status is set to ready
B. Company status is set to ready and submissions and reconciliations are started
C. Company status is set to ready and submissions are locked if reconciliations cleared
D. Submission is allowed only once per company when status is set to ready
Answer: C

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NO.3 An administrator wants to create movement accounts to track changes between the opening and
closing balances of account 1200 (Machinery and Equipment). What must the administrator attach to
account 1200 in order to generate these movement accounts?
A. Base extensions
B. Group journals
C. Movement extensions
D. Movement journals
Answer: C

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NO.4 How can currency conversion be verified after running a consolidation?
A. Check the log report that appears after consolidation is run.
B. Execute the calculation report created for currency conversion.
C. Run the Currency Conversion report for the group company.
D. Run the journals across report for the group after consolidation.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is the difference between currency conversion codes I and C?
A. Code I uses no currency conversion for the opening balance; code C copies prior year's average rate.
B. Code C copies prior year's average rate for opening balance; code I calculates prior year's closing rate
C. Code I calculates opening balance rate, code C copies the opening balance amount.
D. Code C copies prior year's average rate; code I uses prior year's closing rate for opening balance.
Answer: C

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NO.6 A multi-page Excel Link report contains several Controller functions on every worksheet. In order to
improve performance when running the report, how should the functions be organized in the report?
A. Name the worksheets in alphabetical order and insert all functions on the last Excel worksheet.
B. Name the worksheets in alphabetical order and insert all functions on the first Excel worksheet
C. Functions should be split evenly between worksheets, and hidden in system columns A. B, and C.
D. Functions should be split evenly between worksheets. and hidden in system rows 1 to 27.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Why is the offset account for certain investment elimination control tables the same?
A. So that investment and intercompany eliminations are able to perform the same calculations
B. So that automatic journals make a zero sum in the offset account in the consolidated group
C. So that currency conversion is easily performed and reconciled in the consolidated group
D. So that when the administrator copies opening balances to another period, the administrator can
reconcile and differences
Answer: B

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NO.8 End users report data on a weekly basis. They want to be able to work with as many weeks as possible
in a single fiscal year. When configuring the application, what is the maximum number of weeks that an
administrator can specify for a year?
A. 52
B. 53
C. 12
D. 13
Answer: B

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NO.9 End users need to enter data related to intercompany transactions into the Controller system. What
must the administrator set up to enable users to enter this data?
A. Accounts with defined intercompany codes and transaction currencies
B. Counter company information and extended dimensions
C. Accounts with defined intercompany codes and include the accounts on a form
D. Counter company information and transaction currencies
Answer: C

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NO.10 When importing external data files using import specification, which of the following are compulsory
fields in the upload file?
A. Period, Consolidation Type. Company, Submission, Account, Amount
B. Period, Actuality, Company, Currency, Account, Amount
C. Period, Actuality,Company,Consolidation Type, Account, Amount
D. Period,Submission, Company,Currency,Account, Amount
Answer: B

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NO.11 In the diagrams below, a journal entry for Cash (account B100000, an asset account in the balance
sheet) and External Reserves (account R100_000, a cost account in the income statement) is recorded in
the amount of 100. The balance sheet in the Journals Across report does not balance anymore because
Total Assets (account B450000) has a value of 1200 and Total Liabilities and Equity (account B750000)
has a value of 1100. What caused the difference between the Total Assets and Total Liabilities and Equity
accounts?
A. The company journal type, US GAAP, should credit account B711000 for 100.
B. Balance Sheet for Net Income in the general configuration should be B711000.
C. In the general configuration, no value has been specified in the Other Difference for Automatic
Journals field
D. Net Income (Non-integrated) in the general configuration should be B711000.
Answer: B

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NO.12 An administrator created a company journal. The administrator then added several transactions to the
journal. The accounts in these transactions use currency conversion code I. By default, if there is no
amount for the previous year (no local amount or converted amount), what rate is used to convert the
local amount for the current year?
A. The previous year's closing rate
B. The previous year's opening rate
C. The previous year's average rate
D. The previous year's data is not used
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following tools could be used to load data into the Controller staging tables?
A. IBM Controller Import Specification wizard
B. IBM Cognos Data Manager
C. IBM Cognos Configuration
D. IBM Cognos Controller Excel Link
Answer: B

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NO.14 The administrator has generated a group adjustment company (GAC). Which of the following actions
will a user be able to perform with the GAC?
A. Eliminate investments using automatic journals
B. Enter reported value adjustments using a data entry form
C. Enter data into group journals
D. Create company journals
Answer: C

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NO.15 How can an administrator validate company structures to ensure that they meet the application's rules.?
A. Verify Structures menu
B. Verify Companies menu
C. Company structure log file
D. Consolidation structures log file
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-R25
Exam Name: IBM (IBM SurePOS 700 Series Models 743 and 784 Technical Mastery )
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Total Q&A: 66 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which statement is true about the location of the two hard disk drives that the SurePOS x43 and x84
accommodate?
A. Both hard disk drives are stacked vertically at the back of the system unit to the left of the power supply.
B. Both hard disk drives are stacked vertically at the right front of the system unit directly behind the drive
bay door.
C. The first hard disk drive is located at the front left of the system and the second drive is located next to
it horizontally (front right).
D. The first hard disk drive is located at the front right of the system directly behind the drive bay door and
the second drive is located at the back of the system unit.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which three types of ports are standard on all SurePOS x43 and x84 models? (Choose three.)
A. two VGA ports
B. two PC USB ports
C. two RS-485 ports
D. one parallel port
E. two powered USB ports
F. audio mic-in/line out ports
Answer: A,B,F

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NO.3 A customer is considering upgrading to SurePOS 784 systems. They need two PCI slots and they are
concerned about PCI compatibility, restrictions, and limitations. What information should a technical
specialist provide this customer? (Choose two.)
A. Full-length PCI feature cards are not supported.
B. The 784 provides support for only two PCI Express slots.
C. PCI slots are only available as a standard feature on the SurePOS 743 models.
D. If a customer has two PCI adapters to migrate forward they will need to select the additional riser
option that provides two PCI slots.
E. There is nothing to worry about, since all SurePOS x43 and x84 models have two PCI slots that will
accommodate full-size and short PCI cards.
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 The IBM SurePOS x43 point-of-sale (POS) system uses the prefixes "S", "E", and "C" to indicate
specific models. What do these prefixes stand for?
A. "S" refers to the superior model; "E" indicates a model with Windows preloaded; "C" indicates a
customer model.
B. "S" indicates an administrative model; "E" indicates a model with Windows preloaded; "C" indicates a
controller model.
C. "S" refers to the model geared to the supermarket segment; "E" refers to the entry level model; "C"
indicates a customer model.
D. "S" refers to the model geared to the specialty segment; "E" refers to the entry level model; "C"
indicates a controller model.
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the minimum clearance required around the system unit for proper airflow and cooling?
A. one inch on all sides
B. six inches on all sides
C. two to three inches on all sides
D. four to five inches on all sides
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which component can be replaced without removing the pullout tray?
A. I/O module
B. memory module
C. processor fan
D. hard disk drive
Answer: D

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NO.7 Light-Path Management consists of which three components? (Choose three.)
A. LEDs
B. remote management
C. service processor
D. USB memory manager
E. uninterruptible power supply (UPS)
F. second hard drive containing diagnostics
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.8 What is the standard warranty service type offered for SurePOS x43 and x84 systems?
A. Depot Service
B. Carry in Service
C. IBM On-Site Repair
D. IBM EasyServ Repair
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which three systems management capabilities are supported on the SurePOS x43 and x84 models.?
(Choose three.)
A. Wake on LAN (WOL)
B. Wake on WiFi (WOW)
C. Wake on Touch (WOT)
D. Remote Deployment Manager (RDM)
E. Preboot Execution Environment (PXE)
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.10 On which model is an 80GB hard disk drive and a CD/DVD standard?
A. S83
B. C83
C. S43
D. C43
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-610
Exam Name: IBM (DB2 10.1 Fundamentals)
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Total Q&A: 138 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 If the following command is executed: CREATE DATABASE test What is the page size (in kilobytes) of
the database?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
Answer: A

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NO.2 You have a business need to query DB2 10 and DB2 9 databases and you want to write an application
that can run on most platforms unchanged. Which interface would you use to achieve your goal?
A. CLI
B. XML
C. JDBC
D. RUBY
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which two activities indicate the need for a data warehouse? (Choose two.)
A. Confirm product inventory.
B. Monitor product availability.
C. Summarize sales by region.
D. Identify patterns for products sold in the last five years.
E. Associate one or more products with a purchase order.
Answer: C,D

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NO.4 Which DB2 object can be used to improve the execution performance of qualified SELECT statements?
A. Trigger
B. SQL Procedure
C. Sequence Object
D. Materialized Query Table
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which type of temporal table can be used to store only time-sensitive data?
A. Bitemporal
B. Time-period
C. System-period
D. Application-period
Answer: D

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NO.6 When an index is created for a table, where is the metadata for that index stored?
A. In the table definition.
B. In the system catalog.
C. In the schema that the index resides in.
D. In the metadata of the table the index was created for.
Answer: B

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NO.7 What are two valid objects that can be created in DB2? (Choose two.)
A. Tree
B. Node
C. Trigger
D. Contexts
E. Sequence
Answer: C,E

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NO.8 What type of large object (LOB) is used to store LOB data together with the formatted rows on data
pages, instead of in a separate LOB storage object?
A. inline
B. binary
C. internal
D. partitioned
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which object is a stored procedure defined into?
A. Table
B. Schema
C. Package
D. Database
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which product is used to customize execution environments for the purpose of controlling system
resources so that one department or service class does not overwhelm the system?
A. pureScale
B. Workload manager
C. Data partitioning feature
D. Self-tuning memory manager
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which DB2 object is used to provide a logical grouping of other database objects?
A. Alias
B. Index
C. Schema
D. Collection
Answer: C

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NO.12 What type of mechanism is a simple token value that is used to refer to a much bigger large object
(LOB)?
A. locator
B. pointer
C. address
D. reference
Answer: A

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NO.13 When is it appropriate to use a sequence?
A. When you want to control the order in which triggers are fired.
B. When you want to control the order in which stored procedures can be invoked.
C. When you want to automatically generate a numeric value that is not tied to any specific column or
table.
D. When you want to automatically generate a numeric value for each row that is added to a specific
table.
Answer: C

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NO.14 What is the primary function of an Online Transaction Processing (OLTP) workload?
A. To combine data from multiple sources.
B. To discover hidden relationships in data.
C. To analyze large amounts of data to find patterns.
D. To make changes to a small number of records within a single transaction.
Answer: D

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NO.15 What functionality allows users to perform a UNION operation between a DB2 table and an Oracle
view?
A. Oracle connect
B. Trusted context
C. Oracle federation
D. Distributed request
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which clause should be included in a ALTER TABLE statement to update a table definition with a new
column?
A. ADD COLUMN
B. ALTER COLUMN
C. APPEND COLUMN
D. RENAME COLUMN
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which tool allows users to connect to a DB2 database using a wizard?
A. Control Center
B. IBM Data Studio
C. Universal Connection Expert
D. DB2 Connection Pool Manager
Answer: B

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NO.18 What is the purpose of the Query Tuner?
A. To automatically capture and stop rogue queries.
B. To provide recommendations and analysis for tuning a single query.
C. To provide recommendations and analysis for tuning up to 100 queries.
D. To recommend indexes and to guide DBAs through the process of creating new indexes.
Answer: B

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NO.19 Given the following DDL statement: CREATE TABLE sales (item CHAR(20)); If a DBA wishes to
increase the size of the ITEM column, which SQL statement needs to be used?
A. ALTER TABLE sales ADD COLUMN item CHAR(40);
B. ALTER TABLE sales ALTER COLUMN item CHAR(40);
C. ALTER TABLE sales MODIFY COLUMN item CHAR(40);
D. ALTER TABLE sales ALTER COLUMN item SET DATA TYPE CHAR(40);
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which action needs to be performed in order to complete the definition of an application-period temporal
table?
A. A transaction-start-id column must be defined for the table.
B. A history table must be defined and associated with the base table.
C. A BUSINESS_TIME period must be specified in a CREATE or ALTER of the table.
D. A unique index must be created that prevents overlapping of the BUSINESS_TIME period of the table.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 00M-608
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Retail Industry Solutions Sales Mastery Test v1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What is a primary benefit to using the IBM Retail framework, for IBM's anchor account planning
process?
A. Better coordination of IBM's resources across company divisions and brands
B. Provides better software pricing
C. Assists with complex deal negotiations
D. Assists with a better customer understanding
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following trends is most dramatically affecting retailers' use of media for marketing.?
A. The internet is a rapidly growing online medium
B. There are more than 5500 magazines in which to advertise
C. The iPhone has emerged as a new communication platform
D. Consumers pay more attention to other consumers' opinions than retailer's ads
Answer: A

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NO.3 What functionality does IBM WebSphere Commerce product deliver to the client?
A. Web applications
B. Scenario analysis
C. Business intelligence
D. Financial services
Answer: A

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Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 In a Turbolntegrator process, you need to create a cube structure before loading data into it. In which
tab would you create the cube?
A. Epilog
B. Metadata
C. Data
D. Parameters
Answer: B

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NO.2 You want to improve one TM1 cube by adding Skipcheck and Feeder statements to a Rules file. Which
statement is correct?
A. The addition of rule-calculated cells to a cube will cause reduced consumption of RAM.
B. The data integrity of consolidated cells will improve.
C. The performance of views containing rule-calculated cells will improve.
D. Cross cube rule statements will be no longer be ignored.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are the elements of a rule?
A. Area Definition, Qualifier, Formula, Terminator, and Sequence Indicator
B. Area Definition, Qualifier, Formula, and Priority Flag
C. Area Definition, Qualifier, Formula, and Terminator
D. Area Definition, Formula, Terminator, and Priority Flag
Answer: C

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NO.4 Cross-Cube Feeder statements will result in a Cube Dependency relationship between the Dependent
Cube (containing the feeder) and the Base Cube (the target cube of the Feeder from the Dependent Cube)
if the Feeding cells contain data at Server startup or if initially null at server startup, the feeding cells are
subsequently updated during the server session.
Which statement describes the relationship between the cubes having the Cube Dependency
relationship?
A. Cell value updates to the Dependent Cube will invalidate the cache of the Base Cube.
B. Cell value updates to the Base Cube will invalidate the cache of the Dependent Cube.
C. Cell value updates to the Dependent Cube will invalidate the Cube Dependency.
D. Cell value updates to the Base Cube will invalidate the Cube Dependency.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which three are typically stored within a TM1 control object.? (Choose three.)
A. A list of TM1 users
B. TM1 system errors
C. Data required by the TM1 server to perform a driver-based calculation
D. TM1 object-level security permissions
E. Statistical performance data about the TM1 server
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the entries in the tm1server.log shown in the exhibit, which statement is correct?
A. The product dimension has been updated.
B. The process Update_Product_Dimension has not created an error log.
C. The process Update_Product_Dimension has no parameters.
D. The chore Scheduledjmport has completed.
Answer: B

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NO.7 The logging parameter within \}CubeProperties is designated by a "Yes" or "No" for each cube.
What does this define?
A. Data changes to the TM1 cubes logged into the tm1s.log file
B. cubepropertiesdataloggedintothetm1server.log
C. dimensionupdatesloggedintothetm1audit.log
D. userpermissionsloggedtothetm1server.log
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which three parameters create a view extract of a cube either manually or when using Turbolntegrator?
(Choose three.)
A. Skip consolidated values.
B. Skip an ancestor of a specified element.
C. Skip zero/blank values.
D. Skip values greater than a specified numeric value.
E. Skip the eighth element in a dimension.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.9 An international enterprise has planners in European, Asian, and North American regions. The
enterprise wants to have planners in each region enter cube data into the local regional TM1 server but
report globally on a daily basis from a single enterprise-reporting server located in Canada. The
enterprise wants to integrate the cube data from the different regions into a single reporting server in
Canada.
Which method accomplishes this goal?
A. Use the TM1 rules to push data from each regional server into the Canadian reporting server.
B. Use the TM1 rules to pull data from each regional server into the Canadian reporting server.
C. UsetheTM1 replication/synchronization in the Canadian server to pull data from the regional servers.
D. Use the TM1 replication/synchronization in the regional servers to push data to the Canadian server.
Answer: C

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NO.10 The customer is experiencing performance issues with threads blocking as shown in the TM1
Operations Console.
Which setting within the tmls.cfg file improves writer response time by removing lock contention resulting
from concurrent cube data access?
A. AllowSeparateNandCRules=T
B. Parallellnteraction=T
C. UseStargateForRules=T
D. PersistentFeeders=T
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-N17
Exam Name: IBM (IBM B2B Integration SaaS Technical Mastery Test v1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What tool can IBM's business partners leverage that shows how a full outsourced managed services
operation can show savings and return a handsome ROI in a relatively short time to a customer?
A.IBM Sterling File Transfer Service Calculator
B.IBM Sterling B2B Integrator Calculator
C.IBM B2B Integration Services ROI Calculator
D.IBM B2B Automation Savings Calculator
Answer: C

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NO.2 The top obstacles of lack of budget and cost of systems that your customer's suppliers and buyers feel
prevents them from doing more B2B e-Commerce with their trading partners is known as which of the
following?
A.Total cost of ownership (TCO)
B.Complexity of integration
C.Lack of resources
D.B2B Infrastructure Management
Answer: A

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NO.3 The three solutions that make up the IBM Sterling Cloud Services or SaaS solutions are:
A.IBM Sterling B2B Integrator, IBM Sterling B2B Collaboration Network, and IBM Sterling File Transfer
Service
B.IBM Sterling File Transfer Service, IBM Sterling B2B Integration Services, and IBM Sterling B2B
Integrator
C.IBM Sterling B2B Collaboration Network, IBM Sterling File Transfer Service, and IBM Sterling B2B
Integration Services
D.None of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.4 When your customer needs to move broad based megabyte and gigabyte files in the cloud with a
one-to-many manner with their trading partners, which solution will best meet your customer's need?
A.IBM Sterling B2B Integration Services
B.IBM Sterling File Transfer Service
C.IBM Sterling B2B Collaboration
D.IBM Sterling Transformation Services
Answer: B

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NO.5 What IBM cloud based SaaS solution enables data to be converted from one EDI format to the required
trading partner's format for their systems?
A.IBM Sterling B2B Collaboration
B.IBM Sterling File Transfer Service
C.IBM Sterling Process Automation
D.IBM Sterling Transformation Services
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-N21
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Rational Collaborative Lifecycle Management for IT Technical Sales Mastery Test v1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which CLM capability does the Analyst role have full read/write access to?
A. software configuration management
B. test management
C. automation
D. requirements management
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which kind of artifact should a stakeholder create in order to visually model the interaction of a
customer without focusing on the design?
A. user interface sketch
B. business process diagram
C. work flow diagram
D. use case diagram
Answer: D

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NO.3 Practitioners are reluctant to participate in planning activities. Which IBM Rational CLM capability
should the sales specialist suggest?
A. Team members can update status in the course of their daily work.
B. Teams are regularly reminded to provide status updates.
C. Team members who do not participate are absent in the Planned Time view.
D. Team leaders can require members to approve the plan.
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is a major advantage of deploying IBM Rational CLM in a single server setup?
A. full Single Sign-On (SSO) support
B. a single LDAP server to control authentication
C. simplified linking of work items
D. easier to schedule maintenance windows
Answer: C

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NO.5 Progress frequently stalls because team members are unaware of which tasks they must complete in
order for the group to move forward.
Which IBM Rational CLM feature helps prevent these delays the most.?
A. The Planned Time view shows the work load for each team member.
B. The Roadmap view makes dependencies visible to the whole team.
C. Ranked lists ensure that the team works on important items first.
D. In-place status updates appear in the plan automatically.
Answer: B

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NO.6 IBM Rational Requirements Composer version 3.0.1 and later supports integration with which two
products? (Choose two.)
A. Rational Software Architect Design Manager
B. Rational ClearQuest
C. Rational RequisitePro
D. Rational DOORS
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 What is a major benefit of real-time planning in IBM Rational CLM?
A. It captures best practices and reuses them across teams.
B. It allows everyone to participate in keeping the plan accurate.
C. It encourages incremental and breakthrough improvements.
D. It clearly separates planning from execution.
Answer: B

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NO.8 An organization has developed a set of best practices it plans to reuse in the future. How should the
organization use IBM Rational CLM to achieve this?
A. create a project template
B. write a best practices wiki
C. generate a process report
D. develop a project script
Answer: A

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A. It provides a single plan that spans requirements, development, and testing.
B. It fully integrates project planning with execution.
C. It emails copies of the plan to all team members.
D. It subjects any changes in the plan to the entire team approval.It subjects any changes in the plan to
the entire team approval.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the five imperatives best helps each team member understand what the rest of the team is
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A. in-context collaboration
B. real-time planning
C. lifecycle traceability
D. continuous improvement
Answer: C

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NO.1 The Lx86 feature of PowerVM enables which of the following?
A. Running Linux Intel binary applications under POWER Linux
B. Running Windows applications under Linux implemented on iSCSI
C. Running Linux Intel binary applications in the PASE environment
D. Running Linux Intel binaries in a Windows integrated environment
Answer: A

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NO.2 IBM i 7.1, in its DB2 component now supports an industry standard, XML, for exchanging information for
business processes and logiC. Why is this of value to customers and application providers?
A. Provides better query performance
B. They can encrypt a single column of data for security purposes.
C. New WRKWEBQRY functions simplfy this support and is easier to use.
D. Makes it easier to process in DB2 via XML data type and store these documents.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following statements about virtualization on IBM i is correct?
A. Internal storage must be mirrored for data protection.
B. Ethernet connections between partitions and applications require adapters
C. Can host storage for System X and Blades servers running VMware and Windows.
D. Can host storage for i, AIX, Linux, VMware, and Windows running in partitions
Answer: C

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NO.4 What Input/Output devices can be offered on a 4-core Power 720 system.?
A. IOPs, HSL loop with Towers
B. SAS and SSD drives, PCI-e, Tape
C. 12X loop, SAS and SSD drives, PCI-e
D. DVD, HSL loop with Towers, Twinax controller
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which service must a customer purchase in reference to basic defect and usage of IBM operating
systems ?
A. Service Pack
B. Support Line
C. Software Maintenance
D. Electronic Customer Support
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-189
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Business Process Manager Express or Standard Edition V7.5.1, BPM Analysis)
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Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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Exam Name: IBM (IBM i 7.1 Administration)
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Total Q&A: 164 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which graphical tool will help identity additional details about activity on the system, to
isolate the root cause of performance problems?
A. PEX
B. iDoctor
C. Performance Monitor
D. Communications Trace
Answer: B

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NO.2 An administrator has been asked to update an IBM i 7.1 system to the most current
Technology Refresh available from IBM. Which method is the most appropriate to achieve the
update?
A. Perform a D-mode IPL using the Technology Group PTF package SF99707.
B. Perform a slip install using the most current 1_Base_01 resave media available.
C. Perform a scratch install using the most current 1_Base_01 resave media available.
D. Perform an install of the Technology Group PTF package SF99707 using the GO PTF menu.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Journaling of a large library is running on SYSTEMA and the journal is system managed.
Remote journaling to
SYSTEMB has been configured. Due to a communications problem between SYSTEMA and SYSTEMB,
remote journaling is not working and cannot be quickly restarted.
Disk utilization on SYSTEMA is increasing rapidly. To reduce disk utilization the administrator tries to
delete journal receivers on SYSTEMA. Attempts fail and the following message displays:
CPF705F: Receiver not replicated to 1 remote journals.
What must the administrator do to delete journal receivers on SYSTEMA?
A. Delete and recreate only the journal, and then delete the receivers.
B. Stop journaling, as this must be ended first, and then delete the receivers.
C. Use the DLTJRNRCV command and change the delete option parameter to ignore target receivers.
D. Use the CHGJRN command to change the Manage Receivers parameter to allow user
management of journal receivers and then delete the receivers.
Answer: C

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NO.4 An administrator maintains four image catalogs on a host partition that are used by
network-based virtual optical drives. Periodically, images are added or removed from the catalog
and it must be re-exported.
What is the simplest method to update the share and NES export?
A. Create a CL program.
B. Create a REXX program.
C. Create a Qshell script.
D. Run the statements manually as needed.
Answer: B

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NO.5 An administrator needs to restore a physical file DATALIB/SMALLFILE from a Save 21 backup
of library DATALIB. DATALIB has several hundred large database files plus other objects.
The administrator has the job log and output from the last full save of DATALIB.
What should the administrator do to restore SMALLFILE in the shortest time?
A. Run the RST command for object "/QSYS.LIB/DATALIB.LIB/SMALLFILE.FILE"
B. Delete SMALLFILE, run RSTLIB specifying *NEW objects, and specify library DATALIB as the
starting library.
C. Run RSTLIB for library DATALIB specifying the position parameter for SMALLFILE in library DATALIB
from the output of the save.
D. Run RSTOBJ for DATALIB/SMALLFILE specifying the position and sequence number for SMALLFILE
in library DATALIB from the output of the save.
Answer: D

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NO.6 A batch job runs daily in the QBATCH subsystem with a run priority of 50. The job normally
takes an hour to complete and no other batch jobs run during this time.
The administrator needs to reduce the run time and requests the run priority be lowered to 40.
However1 after the change, run time does not decrease.
What is the likely reason that the run time did not decrease?
A. The run priority applies to only interactive jobs.
B. D82 Symmetric Multiprocessing has not been installed.
C. The run priority represents only the relative importance of the job.
D. The system value QPFRADJ (Performance Adjustment) is set to "No adjustment."
Answer: C

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NO.7 A Power 720 currently has its firmware update policy set to Os Managed. Which statement is
correct?
A. Server firmware updates will always be disruptive.
B. IPLing from the A side of any partition will activate the new server firmware.
C. Only the Service partition needs PTEs to be installed for the new server firmware to be
immediately activated.
D. Only the Managing partition needs PTF5 to be installed for the new server firmware to be
temporarily activated.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Several IBM i partitions at a customer site provide outdated contact information to IBM when
problems are reported. Which command should be used to correct the contact information?
A. CHGSVCCFG
B. CHGCNTINF
C. SNDSRVRQS *UPD
D. WRKCNTINE, option 2
Answer: D

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NO.9 The threshold limit has been reached for the system ASP on a system running IBM i 7.1 .
There are some disk units configured to a user ASP available. Business continuing policy prevents
the administrator from stopping the system.
How could the system administrator correct the storage problem in the system ASP?
A. Increase the ASP threshold above the currently utilized storage.
B. Concurrently remove available disk units from user ASP using the "Remove units from
configuration" SST option and add them to system ASP .
C. Switch to the backup system using an HA solution and restart the original system to DST. Remove
the available disk units from user ASP and add them to system ASP .
D. Initiate a control panel function 21 to activate DST on the system console for the affected
partition. Use the DST feature to compress the parity stripe to increase available storage.
Answer: B

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NO.10 A customer is upgrading an HMC to a new release using Recovery DVD5 for the new release
level. Which action must be completed before performing the upgrade from DVD process?
A. Run the 'HMC Management> Back Up HMC Data' to DVD.
B. Run the 'HMC Management> Save Upgrade Data' to HMC disk.
C. Run the 'HMC Management> Back Up HMC Data' to NFS server.
D. Run the 'HMC Management> Save Upgrade Data' to the administrator's PC.
Answer: B

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NO.11 What are the key benefits provided by database journaling?
A. Can send updates concurrently to a second system Can back out incomplete transactions Can
reduce system I/O workload
B. Can reduce application complexity Can back out incomplete transactions Can maintain database
integrity in the case of an unexpected outage
C. Can send updates concurrently to a second system Can increase performance Can maintain
database integrity in the case of an unexpected outage
D. Can send updates concurrently to a second system Can back out incomplete transactions and
commitment control Can maintain database integrity in the case of an unexpected outage
Answer: D

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NO.12 A disaster recovery test is being performed, using backups from a production system. The
backup process is as follows:
Full system save, using GO SAVE Option 21, for weekly backup
SAVCHGOBJ LIB(*ALL) is used for daily library backup, in addition to DLO and IFS saves
The disaster recovery test is at the point where libraries are ready to be restored
Which pair of actions will restore the libraries to the most recent save point, in the minimum
amount of time?
A. Use RSTLIB(*NONSYS) to restore all libraries and object from the SAVE 21 weekly save. For
each daily tape, run a RSTLIB for each library saved by SAVCHGOBJ.
B. Use RSTLIB(*NONSYS) to restore all libraries and object from the SAVE 21 weekly save. Then
run a RSTOBJ for each library saved by SAVCHGOBJ on the most recent daily tape.
C. Run RSTOBJ for each library saved by SAVCHGOBJ on the most recent daily tape.
Then run RSTLIB(*NONSYS) OPTION(*NEW) to restore the remaining libraries and objects from
the SAVE 21 weekly save.
D. For each daily tape, run RSTOBJ for each library saved by SAVCHGOBJ on the daily tapes.
Then run RSTOBJ(*NONSYS) OPTION(*NEW) to restore the remaining libraries and objects from
the SAVE 21 weekly save.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which statement describes server firmware delivery that uses PTF5 on a POWER7 system?
A. A single IBM i (57703S1) PTF is ordered to update server firmware.
B. The firmware is ordered using the marker PTF ID, such as MHxxxxx, and is installed with normal
IBM i PTE commands.
C. The server firmware PTE (MFxxxxx) is ordered from the connected HMC and is sent to the service
partition for install.
D. The HIPER PTF group is ordered for the Licensed Internal Code (5770999) and the order is flagged
with Include Firmware Update *YES.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Due to an application problem, management has requested the IPL of a partition running IBM i
7.1. The administrator initiates the IPL, and during the restart phase notices the IPL is running in
manual mode even though the HMC partition settings indicate B NORMAL.
Why is the IPL running in manual mode?
A. The PWRDWNSYS command restart parameter is set to *MANUAL.
B. Manual is the default IPL mode when there is a console problem.
C. The QIPLTYPE system value is set to "Attended IPL, Console in debug mode".
D. Manual is the default IPL mode when the previous system end indicator is abnormal.
Answer: C

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NO.15 A company has just purchased a new POWER7 server running IBM i 7.1 to replace an older
system running V5R4M5. Due to a mistake by a programmer on the V5R4 system, data was
accidently deleted. To recover, the administrator backs up the deleted data to virtual tape on the
7.1 server and attempts to restore it on the V5R4 server. The restore on the V5R4 server fails with a
message stating the data was saved from a more recent release of the operating system.
Which option will solve this problem?
A. Save the data to physical media.
B. Set the target release parameter to V5R4M0 when saving the data.
C. ETP the virtual tape image catalog from the 7.1 server using binary mode.
D. Use the target release parameter *RECOVER and the access path parameter set to VSR4MO.
Answer: B

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