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Exam Code: COG-642
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos 10 BI Scorecard Developer)

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NO.1 What directory contains log files needed to troubleshoot problems importing data?
A. installation_location/logs/MetricStorelnstall
B. installation_location/logs/MetricMaintenance
C. installation_location/logs/MetricUpgradePackage
D. installation_location/logs/MetricStoreUpgrade
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which statement is true about staging tables?
A. Staging tables map to Data ManagerTables
B. Staging tables map to tab-delimited files
C. Staging tables map to tables in the data warehouse
D. Staging tables map to tables in the content store
Answer: B

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NO.3 A tab-delimited file with a cmo extension can be used to create what type of object?
A. Scorecards
B. Metric types
C. Calendar levels
D. Permissions
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which activities can only be performed by the Metric Store Administrator?
A. Set policies.
B. Create the root scorecard.
C. Run import and export options.
D. Add links to a CognosBI report.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What must be done to load the data successfully into Metric Studio using structured query language
(SQL) scripts?
A. Perform the task Recalculate metric store derived values after each script execution.
B. Perform the task Import data from files into staging area after each script execution
C. Structure the query language to map data from the relational database to the content store.
D. Structure the query language to map data from the relational database to the staging tables
Answer: D

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NO.6 How would the scorecard developer delete the Marketing scorecard and move its children under the
Corporate scorecard.?
A. In the user interface, drag the children to the Corporate scorecard and then delete the Marketing
scorecard.
B. In the user interface, mark the Marketing scorecard for deletion, drag the Corporate scorecard and run
re-calculate metrics derived values.
C. In the .cmo file, re-assign the parent to the children scorecard and then mark the Marketing scorecard
for deletion.
D. In the .cmdfile. re-assign the parent to the children scorecard and then mark the Marketing scorecard
for deletion.
Answer: C

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NO.7 An administrator attempted to transfer metric values from the staging area into the metric store.
However, not all of the metrics were populated with expected values. In which table can the administrator
locate the rejected rows for review, correction, and reloading?
A. KPI_VALUE_STAGE_REJECTS
B. OBJECT_STAGE_REJECTS
C. METRIC_TYPE_STAGE_REJECTS
D. OBJECT_NOTE_STAGE_REJECTS
Answer: A

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NO.8 A tab-delimited file with a cmm extension contains what type of objects?
A. Metrics
B. Metric types
C. Metric values
D. Import sources
Answer: B

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NO.9 A user needs to update target values ONLY for:
Americas Return quantity %
Americas Return quantity % Defective product
Americas Return quantity % Incomplete product
What minimum permissions MUST be applied on the objects for that user?
A. Write target values permissions to the Americas scorecard and read permissions to all ancestor
scorecards.
B. Write permissions to the three metrics and traverse permissions to all ancestor scorecards.
C. Write target values permissions to the three metrics and read permissions to all ancestor scorecards
D. Write permissions to the Americas scorecard and read permissions to all ancestor scorecards
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which tile extension must be used on the tab-delimited file that defines relationships between objects?
A. .cmo
B. .cmr
C. .cml
D. .cmm
Answer: C

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Exam Code: LOT-917
Exam Name: IBM (Administering IBM Connections 3.0)

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NO.1 Dahlia is installing Connections on a Microsoft Windows operating system. She has chosen to use the
text installation command window instead of the graphical one. Which of the following commands allows
her to launch the installation console interface on Microsoft Windows?
A. install_root.sh
B. No console install option exists in Connections 3. Dahlia must use the silent installation process
instead.
C. install.bat -console
D. LCconfig.exe -console
Answer: B

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NO.2 Patrick has defined an IBM HTTP Server and mapped his installed features to it. However, he still sees
that the port numbers are in the URL when he uses a link from the navigation bar. What is the most likely
reason this is happening?
A. The host alias has not been defined for his features.
B. The feature's port numbers have not been removed from the serverindex.xml file.
C. The feature's port numbers must be removed from the IBM HTTP Servers httpd.conf file.
D. The feature's port numbers have not been removed from the LotusConnections-config.xml file.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Judy wrote an audit tool that plugs into Connections using the Event SPI. How is an Event SPI
implementation deployed?
A. The extension is a stand-alone JAR file that must be added to every EAR file. This process can be
manually copied to the EAR or deployed using the WebSphere Application Server admininstrative
application update tools.
B. Judy must create a WAR file that must then be deployed to every EAR file that you want to audit. The
LotusConnections-config.xml file must be updated by adding a new service entry.
C. The extension must be included in an EAR file and deployed to an existing or new cluster. The
LotusConnections-config.xml file must be updated by adding a new service entry.
D. The extension is deployed as a WebSphere Application Server shared library.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Baxter just installed the Search application on multiple nodes. What configuration does Baxter need to
perform to initialize the search index on all nodes?
A. Set SEARCH_INDEX_DIR on all nodes to the same network share
B. Copy the search index to the same place on each node
C. Build the search index on each node
D. Nothing; the index is automatically created across all the nodes
Answer: B

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NO.5 When you installed Connections you specified Oracle for the RDBMS system to store data. What must
you do to enable the applications to use the JDBC driver?
A. Install the Oracle thin client on all WebSphere Application Server nodes.
B. Install the Oracle thin client on the deployment manager and stop and restart all nodes.
C. Copy the Oracle JDBC driver to the same location on all nodes.
D. Install Oracle SQL Plus on all WebSphere Application Server nodes and configure the TNS Listener
with the Oracle server connection URL.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Juan is preparing Tivoli Directory Integrator to populate and maintain Profiles records, and he must
configure the environment so that the Connections and Tivoli Directory Integrator solution tasks can
connect to the database hosting the Profiles database. How does he configure the database drivers so
that they are available to the solution?
A. He copies the database JDBC drivers to the jvm/jre/lib/ext subdirectory of the Tivoli Directory Integrator
installation.
B. No driver configuration is necessary, because all database connections are managed by the database
client software.
C. He updates the Tivoli Directory Integrator solution's profiles_tdi.properties file, and sets the
dbrepos_jdbc_driver property to a local directory path containing the database JDBC drivers.
D. He updates the ibmdisrv file in the Tivoli Directory Integrator installation directory and adds a the local
directory path containing the database JDBC drivers using the "-driverpath" parameter on the Java
invocation command.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Arthur, the administrator, has just configured the <languageSelector> element in the
LotusConnections-config.xml file with a value of defaultLanguage="en" and no additional langage
elements listed. What is the user experience for Miguel, a user, when he accesses Connections features
with a locale setting of "es" (Spanish) in his browser?
A. The language that Miguel can view the Connections interface in a web browser is based on his
preferredLanguage.
B. The default value of the server operating system that Connections was installed on is French, so
Miguel is only able to see the user interface in French.
C. Because the default language is "en" and no additional language elements are included in the
LotusConnections-config.xml file, Miguel only sees the English Connections interface.
D. Miguel sees the user interface in Spanish because the browser locale setting overrides the default
language setting in the LotusConnections-config.xml file. But, he can select any language that he wants
from the toggle button.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Joe has installed and enabled the mobile feature. He has been using the self-signed SSL certificate
produced by WebSphere Application Server, rather than having a trusted certificate.
What must he do to allow iPhone and iPod Touch users to access secure pages from their devices without
receiving warnings about the untrusted certificate?
A. The mobile feature does not support authenticated access or HTTPS communication.
B. The mobile feature does not support authenticated access or HTTPS communication.
C. Nothing. The iPhone and iPod Touch devices automatically trust the self-signed certificate and allow
the user to access Connections information without warnings being shown.
D. Send an email to his users with the certificate as an attachment, ask them to open the
attachment from the device. When they do, the device recognizes it, and installs the certificate.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Baxter has just finished installing everything in Connections except Files and Wikis. He has now
changed his mind and decided that they need Files. What must Baxter do to install Files?
A. Install the Files.ear file from within the WebSphere Application Server administration console.
B. Connections needs to be uninstalled and then reinstalled with Files.
C. Files is always installed, it just needs to be enabled.
D. Use the IBM Installation Manager, select Modify, and add Files.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Bob needs to configure federated repositories using LDAP over SSL. Identify which of the following
tasks is not required to enable SSL communication over LDAP.?
A. Change the port number to the SSL port of the LDAP server.
B. Select the SSL alias defined by Bob in the trust store in the federated repositories configuration.
C. Add a signer certificate to the trust store in WebSphere Application Server by retrieving the certificate
from the LDAP port.
D. Generate a self-signed certificate with an alias using the ikey manager utility and add it to the
Websphere Application Server certificate store.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-181
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere ILOG JRules BRMS v7.1, Application Development)

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NO.1 A developer must set up a rule project. The developer has received three Java archive (.jar) files. The
first .jar file contains information related to the input parameter. The second .jar file contains information
related to the output parameter. The third .jar file contains utility methods that are not used by the rules or
by the other two .jar files. To create the BOM in the rule project, the developer should add:
A. two .jar files to the XOM and create one BOM entry.
B. two .jar files to the XOM and create two BOM entries.
C. all three .jar files to the XOM and create one BOM entry.
D. all three .jar files to the XOM and create three BOM entries.
Answer: B

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NO.2 A developer is implementing a new Business Rule Management System. The requirements say that the
rules should be valid for specific periods of time and no additional rule properties are required.
At a minimum, the developer should use:
A. the default extension model.
B. the plug-in extension model.
C. a specific extension data file.
D. a new extension model and new extension data file.
Answer: A

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NO.3 The validation team is complaining because the WSDL generated by the Transparent Decision Service
is incomplete and does not allow for execution. When verifying the application, the developer realizes that
the schemas are not available. What should the developer do to resolve the problem?
A. Add the schemas in the BOM Editor.
B. Reference the schemas in the ruleapp project.
C. Package the schemas in the META-INF classes of the application.
D. Select the schemas in the dynamic execution object model property.
Answer: D

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NO.4 A company has a non-static BOM method void addLine(OrderLine line, String comment)in class Order.
Rule writers should be presented with the action phrase "add an item to an order with comment a string".
How should a developer verbalize this method.?
A. add <0, an item> to <this> with comment <1, a string>
B. add <line, "an item"> to <this> with comment <comment>
C. add {0, "an item"} to {this} with comment {1}
D. add {line, "an item"} to {this} with comment {comment}
Answer: C

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NO.5 The development team of a company needs to deploy their business rules in a testing environment and
a production environment. Rules with status "Defined" should be deployed to the testing environment,
while rules with status "Verified" should be deployed to the production environment.
What should the developer do to satisfy this requirement?
A. Create one project with one ruleset extractor based on a dynamic query, which takes rule status as a
parameter in the Ruleset Export wizard.
B. Create one project with two ruleset extractors based on two queries.
C. Create one project with two ruleset extractors based on two validator classes.
D. Create two rule projects, one for rules with status "Defined" and the other for rules with status
"Verified".
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-553
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Certified Specialist Netezza Performance Software v6.0)

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NO.1 Which statement is true regarding any database user?
A. The user has a table space defined.
B. The user can be assigned to more than one group.
C. The user must have a corresponding host account.
D. The user can be removed from the default PUBLIC group.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Click on the exhibit.
Given the following query:
SELECT * FROM TableA, TableB WHERE TableA.c_custkey = TableB.o_custkey;
What type of join processing will occur when the query is executed?
A. Collocation hash join processing
B. Distributed hash join processing
C. Broadcast sort merge join processing
D. Replication sort merge join processing
Answer: A

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NO.3 After performing a GROOM on a clustered base table, which statement is true?
A. The table is redistributed on the ORGANIZE ON clause.
B. The table is reorganized on the ORGANIZE ON clause.
C. The table is reorganized on the DISTRIBUTE ON clause.
D. The table is redistributed on the DISTRIBUTE ON clause.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which statement about the TwinFin Groom feature is true?
A. GROOM TABLE requires space to make a complete copy of the table.
B. GROOM TABLE only operates on tables that include an ORGANIZE ON clause.
C. GROOM TABLE prevents nzload from adding data while GROOM is in progress.
D. GROOM TABLE allows UPDATE, DELETE, and INSERT operations to occur while GROOM is in
progress.
Answer: D

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NO.5 When are zonemaps initially created for a table?
A. nzbackup
B. nzreclaim
C. CREATE TABLE
D. ALTER TABLE ADD ZONEMAPS
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two characteristics describe the materialized view on TwinFin. (Choose two.)
A. Materialized views can contain aggregates.
B. Materialized views can contain a HAVING clause.
C. Materialized views can contain a WHERE clause.
D. Materialized views can contain an ORDER BY clause.
E. Materialized views can reference only one base table in the FROM clause.
Answer: D,E

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NO.7 Which statement is true for database users and groups.?
A. All users must belong to admin group.
B. Creation of users and groups is not allowed.
C. Users and groups are local and tied to a particular database.
D. Users and groups are global and not tied to a particular database.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Why should you avoid using Boolean data types as a distribution key for a table ?
A. Table will not join.
B. Table will not broadcast.
C. Table is likely to be skewed.
D. Table is likely to be evenly spread across data slices.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which two statistical data points are automatically updated when performing an INSERT on a table?
(Choose two.)
A. The number of rows in the table.
B. The column histogram statistics.
C. The number of NULLs in each column.
D. The number of unique values in each column.
E. The minimum and maximum column value information (excluding text columns).
Answer: A,E

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NO.10 Which clause CANNOT be used with a CREATE VIEW statement?
A. SUM ()
B. GROUP BY
C. ORDER BY
D. OUTER JOIN
Answer: C

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NO.11 When creating a table, you can specify a column constraint for each individual column of either "NULL"
or "NOT NULL". When column values are later evaluated within a query statement, which of these is true?
A. 0 is equal to null, the empty string ( '' ) is equal to null.
B. 0 is equal to null, the empty string ( '' ) is not equal to null.
C. 0 is not equal to null, the empty string ( '' ) is equal to null.
D. 0 is not equal to null, the empty string ( '' ) is not equal to null.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Using a date column as a distribution key may distribute rows evenly across dataslices, why is this a
poor choice of a distribution key?
A. Queries on the table will invoke compression.
B. Queries on date range may involve processing skew.
C. Queries on date range will utilize only host processing.
D. Queries on the table will invoke compression on the date columns.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which CREATE DATABASE attributes are required?
A. The database name.
B. The database name and the redo log file name.
C. The database name and the table space name.
D. The database name and the temporary table space name.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Columns in a table may be zonemapped. How are those columns chosen?
A. They are automatically selected by the system.
B. They are based on the same columns as the table's distribution key.
C. They are added via the ALTER TABLE ADD INDEX(column_name) statement.
D. They are added via the ALTER TABLE ADD ZONEMAP(column_name) statement.
Answer: A

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NO.15 What is a characteristic of a column that is based on the TIMESTAMP datatype?
A. It includes a date portion.
B. It includes a timezone offset.
C. The value is reevaluated each time the row is selected.
D. The value is initially assigned when the row is first created.
Answer: A

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NO.16 What is the raw user data space available on a TwinFin 24?
A. 24TB
B. 48TB
C. 64TB
D. 100TB
Answer: C

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NO.17 What should be considered when you are asked to select the distribution key columns for a very large
fact table?
A. As many columns as possible.
B. Columns that contain many nulls.
C. Columns that contain few unique values.
D. Columns used to join to other large tables.
Answer: D

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NO.18 What is the maximum number of columns you can choose as organizing keys for clustered base table?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: C

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NO.19 .When working with sequences, which of the following statements will always be true?
A. One-up numbers are generated.
B. Integers (whole numbers) are generated.
C. The first value generated is the number 1.
D. The sequence number assigned will be unique across all tables and databases.
Answer: B

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NO.20 What is the TwinFin host Linux file that must be modified to adjust optimizer settings
permanently?
A. /nz/data/postgresql.conf
B. /nz/data/config/system.cfg
C. /nz/kit/sys/initTopology.cfg
D. /nz/kit/log/sysmgr/sysmgr.log
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-765
Exam Name: IBM (Systems Management Technical V1)

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NO.1 An IT Manager has experienced problems maintaining consistent firmware and driver versions
throughout their environment. Which of the following tools will allow them to standardize their firmware
and driver versions?
A. Systems Director Service and Support Manager
B. Systems Director Automation Manager
C. Systems Director Update Manager
D. Systems Director Real Time Diagnostics
Answer: C

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NO.2 A customer wants to verify they have the correct licensing in place for BOFM. Where should they look?
A. IBM Systems Director
B. AMM License Manager
C. AMM General Settings
D. AMM File Management
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following partners have developed plug-ins for IBM Systems Director?
A. CISCO, Brocade, Huawei and LSI
B. Intel, AMD, Citrix, VMware and CISCO
C. Blade Network Technologies, CISCO and QLogic
D. Brocade, CISCO, Emulex and QLogic
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following Systems Director files would you edit to increase the light-path diagnostic LEDs
polling interval?
A. lightpath.properties
B. polling.properties
C. support.properties
D. config.properties
Answer: D

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NO.5 A business partner systems management professional is speaking to a new customer that has many
different hardware and software vendors. They have asked the business partner to help them provide a
consolidation blueprint. Which of the following should be suggested to the customer?
A. Chiphopper study
B. TDA
C. ATS SCON (CDAT) study
D. Perform a Proof of Concept
Answer: C

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NO.6 The customer is near capacity for their data center. They would like to monitor and manage power
usage in the data center to plan for future growth. Which of the following products will help?
A. AEM
B. IBM Systems Director
C. Tivoli Usage Manager
D. Tivoli Power Center
Answer: A

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NO.7 The IBM Systems Director Pre-Installation Utility scans the local system to identify potential problems
that could prevent IBM Systems Director from installing successfully. Which of the following problems can
be avoided by using the utility?
A. Insufficient disk space available
B. Unsupported hardware server
C. Unsupported database
D. Missing installation media
Answer: A

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NO.8 A Dell customer uses DRAC for systems management. Which of the following would be the IBM
equivalent.?
A. ASMP
B. ISMP
C. ASMA
D. IMM
Answer: D

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NO.9 A customer currently uses IBM Systems Director to monitor IBM servers in their datacenter. They also
have DS8000 series storage and would like to monitor that through IBM Systems Director as well. Which
tool will allow them to accomplish this goal?
A. Tivoli Storage Productivity Center
B. DS Storage Manager
C. Storage Control
D. IBM TotalStorage Manager
Answer: C

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NO.10 A customer would like to test their ability to send alerts from a server to the IBM Systems Director
server Which of the following commands can they use to simulate test events?
A. Genevent
B. Sendevent
C. Testevent
D. NetEvent
Answer: A

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NO.11 A customer is looking to implement a systems management methodology across the enterprise. What
standard would the customer use?
A. ISO 9000
B. ITIL
C. Six Sigma
D. SNIA
Answer: B

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NO.12 A HP customer wants to integrate the ILO adapter events into Systems Director. Which of the following
protocols would be required?
A. CIM
B. SLP
C. SNMP
D. PET
Answer: C

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NO.13 A POWER7 customer plans to monitor, detect, and automatically react to events and establish a
heartbeat between systems. The customer plans to enable automatic switch-over for resiliency. Which of
these IBM products meets these needs?
A. PowerVM
B. PowerHA
C. Systems Director VMControl
D. Tivoli Service Automation Manager
Answer: B

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NO.14 A System x customer is evaluating IBM Systems Director, however they are still not completely sure
that they want to implement. Which of the following support offerings should a specialist offer them?
A. IBM Systems Director Support Pack
B. 90 Day Startup Support
C. SWMA
D. Support Line Agreement
Answer: B

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NO.15 A customer wants to change the boot order of multiple blades in a BladeCenter H. Which of the
following is the best place to accomplish this task?
A. IMM
B. UEFI
C. BOMC
D. AMM
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-053
Exam Name: IBM (Rational Team Concert V3 )

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NO.1 Work Items presentation: Which is NOT part of the default work item presentations?
A. Plan Editor Preview
B. Inline Work Item Editor
C. Work Item Editor
D. Eclipse Work Item Editor
Answer: D

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NO.2 For what purpose should a project administrator use a value set definition.?
A. to display all users in a project or team area that have a specific role
B. to display a full list of team members
C. to enable a query to show only those work items related to a specific category
D. to write a query that lists all the users in a team
Answer: A

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NO.3 In addition to Release, Iteration, and Daily Work Planning, which three capabilities does IBM Rational
Team Concert Support? (Choose three.)
A. Requirements Management
B. Work Item Management
C. Source Code Management
D. Build Management
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.4 Which three options are available for defining build schedules? (Choose three)
A. at a continuous interval in minutes on selected days
B. at a particular time for defined days
C. during defined business hours
D. only if there are newly accepted changes
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 In Scrum, what is a constantly prioritized to-do list of high-level work?
A. Sprint Backlog
B. Sprint
C. Product Backlog
D. Product
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which three views does the default Eclipse perspective work items provide? (Choose three.)
A. Package Explorer
B. Team Artifacts
C. Team Central
D. My Work
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.7 How is version control of process templates accomplished?
A. automatically by IBM Rational Team Concert on every save
B. by the naming convention of the templates
C. by keeping copies on a shared drive
D. by using IBM Rational Team Concert source control of the exported process template
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which three does a setup project action create? (Choose three.)
A. a build definition
B. a stream and component
C. work item categories
D. team areas
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.9 When working with public dashboards, which two factors should be considered when determining the
best strategy for saving changes?
A. number of widgets being customized and elapsed load time
B. proper permissions and type of dashboard
C. number of people with permissions to edit and type of edits
D. dashboard template configuration and widget selection
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which three statements are true about an IBM Rational Team Concert project area? (Choose three.)
A. It has an associated process, which is a collection of practices, rules, and guidelines used to organize
and control the flow of work.
B. It has a graphical chart that illustrates business priority ranking of a project relative to other peer
projects.
C. It is typically based on a predefined process template, which can be optionally modified to satisfy any
unique needs of the project.
D. It may optionally contain team areas that define the sub-teams that work on the project.
Answer: A,C,D

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Exam Code: 000-M194
Exam Name: IBM (IBM InfoSphere Guardium Sales Mastery Test v1)

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NO.1 According to Verizon Business 2009 Data Breach Report, the majority of compromised
data__________?
A. occurs on database server level
B. resides outside of the firewall
C. is a result of laptop theft
D. happens because of insecure storage devices
Answer: D

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NO.2 In the European Telco case, one of their immediate needs is to _________.
A. protect privacy of call records for compliance with data privacy laws
B. meet governance requirements
C. optimize database usage
D. migrate from Oracle to Microsoft database technology
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following is false.?
A. Oracle Audit Vault does not rely on native logs.
B. Oracle Database Audit/Vault does not enforce separation of duties.
C. Oracle Database Vault does not support heterogeneous DB environments
D. Oracle Database/Audit Vault does not provide real-time monitoring and alerting.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-M222
Exam Name: IBM (Tivoli Enterprise Asset Management Sales Mastery Test v2)

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NO.1 What is IBM Maximo Spatial Asset Management?
A.Geospatially enabled asset and service management
B.A Maximo add-on that provides remote asset management
C.An asset management solution used by NASA
D.An asset management solution to manage linear asset
Answer: A

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NO.2 In which of the following industries are customers are less likely to purchase Maximo Calibration?
A.Government
B.Oil and Gas
C.Life Sciences
D.Nuclear
Answer: A

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NO.3 Today, many companies use converged assets to support their business operations that are
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A.Plant Engineers have sole responsibility for delivering on the converged asset performance
B.ITManagers have sole responsibility for making decisions on how to manage the converged
asset
C.Plant engineers and IT Managers are jointly responsible for delivering high availability of the
converged asset performance
D.Neither Plant Engineers nor IT Managers focus on converged asset performance
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-M245
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Automation Sales Mastery Test v4)

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NO.1 What is the name of the IBM Business Service Management solution that: Simplifies service model
maintenance through discovery integration, Provides Real-time status through Consolidated Operations
Management integration, and Calculates ° Key Pe rf o r m ance I nd i ca t o r ¡± b y l ev er a gi n g a ut om at e
acquisition of business metrics?
A. Tivoli Business Service Management
B. Tivoli Business Service Strategy
C. IBM Business Framework
D. All of the above.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Name the solution that is offered as a component of TEM (Tivoli Endpoint Manager) for Lifecycle
Management, Security & Compliance and also offered as a standalone product.?
A. Patch Management
B. Version Management
C. Compliance Management
D. None of the above.
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is one of the processes which demands the most of human resources inside a complex IT
Environment?
A. Monitoring.
B. Track of changes and configuration.
C. View of the current environment.
D. All of the above.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-Z05
Exam Name: IBM (IBM System z and z/OS Fundamentals Mastery)

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NO.1 Which of the following describes the z/OS Communications Storage Manager (CSM)?
A.Communications Server disk storage
B.Layered network model storage
C.RFC common storage standard
D.Shared I/O buffer for data flow
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following enables network devices to communicate with SNA applications in the z/OS
environment?
A.BTAM
B.VSAM
C.VTAM
D.BDAM
Answer: C

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NO.3 What master catalog entry relates to the name of a user catalog?
A.HLQ
B.VVDS
C.ALIAS
D.Alternate index
Answer:C

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NO.4 IBM mainframe offers specialty processors (zIIP, zAAP, SAP and IFL).Which of the following accurately
describes a function of one of these specialty processors?
A.zAAP processors automatically turns off unnecessary computing components.
B.IFL is used by a Linux LPAR or Linux on z/VM
C.zIIP processors automatically run high priority jobs first
D.SAP processors are specially tuned to run the SAP application suite
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following can identify a base software component?
A.Message format
B.Software update list
C.System log routing table descriptor
D.Three characters in message identifier
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following is true of Type 4 JDBC drivers?
A.Fully written in java, can be ported to any platform that supports DBMS protocol.
B.JDBC API calls platform and database specific code to access the database.
C.JDBC default driver for z/OS
D.Offers the best performance
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following describes the major difference between and FICON or ESCON channels?
A.ESCON channels are faster, FICON channels are slower
B.ESCON channels use hard copper connections, FICON channels use fibre connections
C.ESCON channels are more secure than FICON channels
D.FICON channels have higher capacity than ESCON channels
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following z/OS UNIX files determines the behavior of a z/OS HTTP Server request passed
to a plug-in?
A.plugin-cfg.xml
B.plugin-cfg xml
C.polugin.conf
D.profile
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following mainframe technologies requires a coupling facility?
A.CTC ring
B.Shared DASD
C.Parallel Sysplex
D.zAAP
Answer: C

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NO.10 SSI, Cookie Support, Tracing and Logging, and Persistent Connections are considered what type of
z/OS-specific HTTP functions?
A.File Caching
B.Security
C.Add-on
D.Basic
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-819
Exam Name: IBM (Rational Application Developer V8 Associate )

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NO.1 Which statement is true about displaying perspectives in a Rational Application Developer workbench
window?
A. Multiple perspectives can be open, but you can interact with only one in each workbench window.
B. Perspectives can be arranged and viewed simultaneously in the workbench.
C. Perspectives can be tiled into a single view.
D. A single perspective per workbench can be open.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A development team is starting a new web application project and building a set of servlets for the first
time. Which two methods can be used to create an initial set of servlets for the project? (Choose two.)
A. take an existing Java class and select the Refactor to servlet option and follow the wizard screens to
configure the project and servlet parameters
B. create a new class that extends java.com.servlet in a Java project and add the project to the web
project as a Java utility project
C. create a new class that extends java.com.servlet and add a "servlet" entry to the web application
deployment descriptor
D. create a new class that extends java.com.servlet and add a "servlet" annotation
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 What is an example of an application component type?
A. Applet
B. Web Module
C. Resource Adapter
D. Deployment Descriptor
Answer: A

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NO.4 A developer needs to debug an application. What can the developer do to get the debug perspective on
Rational Application Developer?
A. select Window -> Open Perspective -> (Other) -> Debug
B. select Window -> New Perspective -> Open -> Debug
C. select Window -> Debug
D. select Window -> Application -> Open -> Debug
Answer: A

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NO.5 A developer needs to check the state of one of the JSF Managed Beans when an application is paused.
Although all Managed Beans (and other scoped objects) can be found by looking at the FacesContext
object available in the Variables view, finding the objects this way can be difficult and time consuming.
What is the simplest way for a developer to check the state of scoped objects and view attributes?
A. create matches for scoped objects and view attributes and view the values at the Expression window
B. print the report of the scoped objects and view attributes, then filter the scoped object out of the list
C. execute the pauseTime.bat under the install_root/eclipse/plug-ins/scopedValue, which will print the
values of the scoped objects and view attributes
D. enable the runtime JVMPI values for the variables
Answer: A

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NO.6 Web 2.0 technologies improve the user interface of web-based applications and RAD8 provides support
for several of these technologies. Which two technologies supported by RAD8 are provided to make Web
2.0 easier? (Choose two.)
A. Dojo Javascript library
B. Web Security Editor
C. Ajax Proxy
D. Dynamic Page Template support (Tiles)
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 A developer needs to debug the application RAD8EJBWeb containing redbank.jsp on the server using
Rational Application Developer. What can be done to accomplish this task?
A. right-click redbank.jsp and select Debug As -> Debug on Server
B. create a software analyzer configuration and run it
C. right-click redbank.jsp and select Profile As -> Profile on Server
D. Open the Debug perspective as it automatically starts a debug session
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which two are Session Bean interfaces.? (Choose two.)
A. local interface
B. remote interface
C. provider interface
D. external interface
Answer: A,B

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NO.9 What is the annotation for local interface?
A. @local
B. @localInterface
C. @Interface
D. @ejbLocal
Answer: A

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