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Exam Code: 000-919
Exam Name: IBM (Informix 11.70 System Administrator)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 118 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which two corrective actions may be taken if following message is logged in the online message log
during a failed attempt to bring an instance online? (Choose two)
18:15:44
Size of resident + virtual segments 100000KB + 60000KB > 150000KB
18:15:44
total allowed by configuration parameter SHMTOTAL
A.
Decrease SHMADD
B.
Increase SHMTOTAL
C.
Decrease SHMBASE
D.
Increase SHMVIRTSIZE
E.
Decrease buffer pool size
Answer: B,E

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NO.2 What output is NOT reported by the dbschema utility?
A. The database logging mode.
B. The schemas of remote databases.
C. The table definitions without owner names.
D. Theonspaces commands to re-create your systems' dbspaces.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which statement about auditing is NOT true?
A. You can enable auditing row updates for all rows in the table.
B. You can enable auditing row updates just for a subset of rows in the table.
C. You can enable auditing row updates for all rows from all tables in the database except for system
catalog tables.
D. You can enable auditing row updates for all rows from all tables in the database and for the system
catalog tables.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which SQL Administration API command will merge non-contiguous table extents?
A. shrink
B. defragment
C. table repack
D. merge extents
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following activities does the Secure-Auditing Facility NOT monitor and record?
A. Specific rows.
B. Specific users.
C. Specific tables.
D. Specific DML operations.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which statement regarding default roles is true?
A. An administrator can define a default role to assign only to the PUBLIC group for a particular database.
B. The privileges associated with a default role takes precedence over the privileges granted to an
individual user.
C. An administrator can define a default role to assign to individual users or to the PUBLIC group for a
particular database.
D. When a user connects to a database, it is necessary to use the SET ROLE DEFAULT statement in
order to gain the default role privileges.
Answer: C

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NO.7 When a SELECT statement is executed which statement is true?
A. The number and duration of the locks is dependent on the ISOLATION LEVEL.
B. If COMMITTED READ isolation is in place then the SELECT will never encounter any locking errors.
C. Within a transaction the database server will place row or page locks on anonlogging table.
D. If the SELECT is part of an UPDATE cursor then the database server will place an exclusive lock on
the entire dataset.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which sysmaster table can be queried to find the logging status of a database?
A. sysdb
B. sysdblog
C. sysdatabases
D. sysdblogstatus
Answer: C

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NO.9 What does the ovbuff field of an onstat -p output show?
A. The number of times that a buffer was read.
B. The number of times a buffer was extended.
C. The number of times that any buffer was overwritten.
D. The number of times the instance ran out offree buffers.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Why do automatic checkpoints cause the database server to trigger more frequent checkpoints?
A. To avoid LRU flushes.
B. To ensure the buffer pool is always available.
C. To ensure theonstat -g ckp report is accurate.
D. To avoid transaction blocking during checkpoints.
Answer: D

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NO.11 By default, the alarm program gets executed for which event(s)?
A. All events.
B. Only for events with Severity code 1.
C. Only for events with Severity code 5.
D. Only for events with Severity code greater than 1.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which command line utility displays real time statistics about the instance?
A. dbinfo
B. onstat
C. dbschema
D. onmachinfo
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which statement about the scope of UPDATE STATISTICS is true?
A. If the FOR PROCEDURE keywords are included but the name of any SPL routine is not specified, an
error will be returned.
B. If the FOR TABLE keywords are used without specifying the name or synonym of a table, the database
will not recalculate distributions for any table in the current database.
C. If the FOR TABLE keywords are specified with a table but without specifying a list of columns, the
database server will not recalculate distributions on all of the columns of the specified table.
D. If the FOR PROCEDURE specification, Table and Column Scope, and Resolution clauses are NOT
included, then the statistics are updated for every table and SPL routine in the current database.
Answer: D

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NO.14 How is the DBSSO group determined on a Unix system with role separation?
A. It is always the groupinformix.
B. It is set using theonsecurity command line tool.
C. It is the group that owns $INFORMIXDIR/dbssodir.
D. It is the group specified in the DBSSOonconfig parameter.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which onstat command will allow the gathering of statistics about the Informix Database Scheduler
tasks that are currently running or scheduled to be run?
A. onstat -g dbc
B. onstat -g sch
C. onstat -g adm
D. onstat -g tsk
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which role can create, alter, or delete trusted context objects?
A. DBA
B. DBSA
C. DBSSO
D. DBSECADM
Answer: D

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NO.17 For a given procedure name, what is the objective of the SQL query shown below?
A. The query returns the ordered text form of the specified procedure body.
B. The query returns the ordered compiled form of the specified procedure body.
C. The query returns both ordered text and ordered compiled form of the specified procedure body.
D. The query returns neither the ordered text nor the ordered compiled form of the specified procedure
body.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which of the following privileges is NOT valid for a table fragment?
A. ALL
B. INSERT
C. UPDATE
D. CREATE INDEX
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which statement about mapped user functionality is true?
A. Mapped users cannot execute distributed operations.
B. Mapped users are allowed to run with multiple names.
C. The DBSA can control the access to tables at a row level using security labels.
D. The DBSA can grant database server access to externally authenticated users with no local account.
Answer: D

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NO.20 To enable network encryption, what two steps must the administrator complete? (Choose two.)
A. Enter the CSM name in thesqlhosts file.
B. Set the IFX_ENCCSMonconfig parameter to 1.
C. Define the CSM in the concsm.cfg configuration file.
D. Enter the CSM name in theonconfig NETTYPE parameter.
E. Set the environment variable ENCCSMCFG to the name of the CSM.
Answer: A,C

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Exam Code: LOT-915
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Portal 7.0 Solution)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 119 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which option best describes how JSR 286-compliant portlets and widgets interact with each other?
A. Portlets and widgets cannot interact with each other.
B. Widgets and portlets can interact by using shared render parameters and events.
C. Widgets and portlets can interact by using shared render parameters.
D. widgets and portlets can interact by using events.
Answer: B

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NO.2 The IBM Lotus Connections portlets provide access to collaboration and social networking features
from Lotus Connections, such as Activities and Blogs. Which portlets are available from the built-in Lotus
Connections portlets package?
A. Activities, Blogs, Bookmarks, Connections, Profiles
B. Activities, Blogs, Bookmarks, Connections, Profiles, Ratings
C. Activities, Blogs, Bookmarks, Tag cloud, Profiles
D. Activities, Blogs, Bookmarks, Profiles, Ratings
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer has requirements to remotely search user profiles based on attributes of the profile using
web services. How can this task be accomplished in WebSphere Portal?
A. By means of the remote portal search service
B. By means of the remote PUMA SPI REST service
C. By means of the remote virtual member manager service
D. By means of the user repository APIs and wrap web services around API calls.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What best describes the portal model REST services that are now offered with WebSphere Portal
V7.0?
A. Portlet model, content model, navigational model
B. Portlet model, content model, navigational model, wire model
C. Portlet model, content model, navigational model, user profile
D. Layout model, portlet model, content model, navigational model, wire model, user profile
Answer: D

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NO.5 From what source does the Page Builder theme instantiate drag-and-drop functionality in terms of
portlets?
A. The <dnd:drag/> and <dnd:drop/> tags.
B. The theme Default.jsp sets parameters for the ibmPortalConfig object that define the drag-and-drop
behaviors for dragging portlets.
C. The Page Builder theme does not support drag-and-drop for portlets.
D. The theme Default.jsp instantiates drag-and-drop functionality by means of loading ibmCSA.js and
calling instantiateDrag().
Answer: B

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NO.6 Evan wants to develop a portlet to act as a target using Click-to-Action. He wants to develop a
client-side click-to-action handler. Which best describes the ways that he can get the source data
submitted by the source portlet?
A. He can retrieve the source form and the input inside from the page Document Object Model.
B. He can retrieve the source data from the window.ibm.portal.c2a.event.value global variable.
C. Either of the above.
D. None of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.7 A site needs to be created within portal with its own title, user repository, default content, and branding.
What single portlet is provided for creating a site within portal?
A. Content Authoring portlet
B. Theme Customizer portlet
C. Virtual Portal Manager portlet
D. New Site Creation Wizard portlet
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following statements is NOT a functionality provided by IBM Rational Application
Developer?
A. Wizards for creating portlets and portlet applications
B. WebDav client for working with Page Builder 2 theme
C. Ability to deploy portlets on a local WebSphere Portal server
D. Ability to deploy portlets on a remote WebSphere Portal server
Answer: B

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NO.9 A remote portlet is integrated into a portal implementation using WSRP. What new WSRP 2.0 feature
is enabled in WebSphere Portal V7.0 for sharing parameters with other portlets without wiring the
producer and consumer portlet?
A. Event operations
B. Cookie handling
C. Resource serving
D. Public render parameters
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following statements describes the value of the Vendor variable from the following portlet
code?
Profile p = (Profile) portletRequest.getAttribute(PortletRequest.CCPP_PROFILE);
String vendor = p.getAttribute("Vendor").toString();
A. It contains the name of the vendor of the portal server.
B. It contains the name of the vendor of the client browser or device.
C. It contains the value of the configuration key "vendor" for the Profile configuration service.
D. It contains the value of the "vendor" attribute for an identified or authenticated user, or null for an
anonymous user.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following options are advantages of using Lotus OneUI for a portal theme?
A. Keyboard accessibility with hover effects, also providing focus effects or equivalent facilitation.
B. The code base is tested for stability, accessibility, and bidirectionality in multiple browsers.
C. Every page is enforced to look the same regardless of content, disallowing different browsers to make
the pages look different under any circumstance or user input.
D. A and B are correct.
Answer: D

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NO.12 In a Web 2.0 theme, which of the available REST services only allow for read access to the model?
A. Layout model
B. Portlet model
C. Content model
D. Navigation model
Answer: D

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NO.13 John has developed a custom step-up handler. He has implemented the two methods init() and
establishAuthLevel() of the StepUpAuthHandler interface. What is the outcome of the method
establishAuthLevel() returning null?
A. A null pointer exception is thrown.
B. The browser is redirected to the portal login page.
C. The browser displays the HTTP error 403 Forbidden.
D. The authentication level is assumed to be successfully established.
Answer: D

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NO.14 IBM Rational Application Developer provides an easy-to-use wizard for creating portlets. What options
best describes the portlet types that you can use while creating JSR 286-compliant portlets?
A. Basic, Empty, and Faces
B. Basic, Faces, and IBM Struts Portlet Framework
C. Basic, Faces, and Spring Portlet MVC Framework
D. Faces, IBM Struts Portlet Framework, and Spring Portlet MVC Framework
Answer: A

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NO.15 Aside from normal steps for deploying portlets to a page, what additional step, if any, is necessary to
configure a portlet using the Struts MVC framework and a portlet using the JavaServer Faces framework
to the same portal page?
A. Server-side aggregation must be forced on a page
B. Both portlets must comply with the JSR286 Portlet Specification
C. No additional steps are required
D. Framework JAR files must be added to WebSphere Application Server shared libraries
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-056
Exam Name: IBM (Rational BuildForge v7.1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 61 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 What does creating an environment snapshot produce?
A. a new instance of an existing environment
B. a copy of an existing environment
C. a revision of an existing environment with a version number
D. a delta from the original environment
Answer: A

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NO.2 What does collector data populate manifests for?
A. Build Forge Enterprise Edition
B. Build Forge Standard Edition
C. all properly licensed editions
D. servers configured with collectors
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the best way to handle excessive step log output?
A. through direct use of the Build Forge API
B. by limiting the log data generated by the project steps
C. by upgrading the disk subsystem on the database server
D. through use of Build Forge Console clustering support
Answer: B

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NO.4 What can be done to gain optimal performance from Build Forge?
A. set all project Run Limits to Unlimited
B. increase Max Jobs to greater than the maximum number of concurrent jobs
C. measure baseline performance of a known project, then individually vary Build Forge and database
performance parameters and re-measure
performance
D. increase the Run Queue size to greater than the maximum number of concurrent jobs
Answer: C

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NO.5 What can developers use to start Build Forge projects and view job results from within their IDE?
A. the Build Forge IDE
B. the TFS plug-in
C. the Build Forge Eclipse perspective
D. an iPhone running Firefox
Answer: C

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NO.6 On which system can IBM Installation Manager (IIM) be used to install multiple Build Forge
Management Console versions that can be selectively started without additional intervention?
A. System z
B. System i
C. UNIX
D. Windows
Answer: C

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NO.7 What happens when the dot command.set is used to assign a value to an environment variable?
A. The job environment value is changed on-the-fly.
B. The value of the master environment record is changed.
C. A new environment variable is created and added to the master environment record.
D. The value of the job environment is changed, but the change is lost when the job is finished.
Answer: B

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NO.8 The Build Forge services layer is served by the default application server and which alternative
platform?
A. WebSphere application server
B. Apache Tomcat application server
C. WebLogic application server
D. JBoss Enterprise application platform
Answer: A

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NO.9 Where are detailed system messages available?
A. <install directory>/?apache/tomcat/logs directory
B. the Build Forge user interface Administration Messages panel
C. project step logs
D. server manifests
Answer: A

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NO.10 What are the primary roles of the agent? (Select three.)
A. to listen for instructions from the Build Forge Console
B. to calculate CPU profile on the client machine
C. to accept API calls
D. to execute instructions from the Build Forge Console
Answer: A,B,C,D

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Exam Code: 000-536
Exam Name: IBM (Fundamentals of Applying Tivoli Security and Compliance Management Solutions V3)
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Total Q&A: 66 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 A customer may have to comply to which security compliance regulation?
A. PCI
B. ITIL
C. CoBIT
D. Six Sigma
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which statement is true about privileged user activity monitoring?
A. Privileged user activity monitoring is not necessary.
B. Privileged user activity is applicable to the overall compliance picture.
C. Privileged user activity monitoring is only necessary if sudo is implemented.
D. Privileged user activity monitoring is only necessary if sudo is not implemented.
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the most accurate statement about compliance?
A. MRO and SSO are primarily compliance tools.
B. Compliance has no interest in privileged user activity.
C. Compliance is concerned mostly with security profiles.
D. Compliance is concerned mostly with operator behaviors.
Answer: D

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NO.4 A customer has a process which needs centralized keystore management. Which IBM solution should
be proposed?
A. IBM Tivoli Directory Server
B. IBM Tivoli Key Lifecycle Manager
C. IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager
D. IBM Tivoli Compliance Insight Manager
Answer: B

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NO.5 Who has information about the different quality management processes in a customer's organi ation?
A. team leads
B. line managers
C. security officer
D. process consultants
Answer: D

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NO.6 What are three possible database products that applications could be using? (Choose three.)
A. Perl
B. RACF
C. Oracle
D. MSSQL
E. IBM DB2 F. ISS SiteProtector
Answer: CDE

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NO.7 In the Business Process Modeling Notation (BPMN), what does this symbol represent?
A. Event
B. Action
C. Decision Point
D. IT-based Activity
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which two areas help assess the customer's level of maturity for IT process security and compliance
management
(Choose two.)
A. Risk Management
B. Incident Response
C. Project Management
D. Hardware Acquisition
E. Employee Certification
Answer: AB

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NO.9 The customer applies a strict password policy including: Password aging set to 60 days Password
complexity set to high Password recycling time set to never These restrictions apply both to user accounts,
system accounts, database accounts, and application accounts.Which level of detail are these policies
referenced in the IT Security Baseline document?
A. Every detailed setting.
B. Only those password policy details that affect the deployment of the IBM tools are referenced.
C. Password policies are not part of the IT Security Baseline document and therefore are not referenced.
D. The document references the existence of the password policy and then refers to the customer's
Password Policy Guideline document for more details.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which document should be in place as a partial indicator of IT compliance maturity?
A. Compliance Policy Registry
B. FFA Compliance ORM Document
C. Business Resilience Continuity Plan
D. Risk Management Mitigation Portfolio
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-608
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Process Server V7.0 Deployment )
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Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 WebSphere Process Server (WPS) V7.0 introduces a new Service Component Architecture (SCA)
container. Which of the following changes in the architecture result in improved performance?
A. There is no dependency for an EJB container for WPS V7.0 applications.
B. The new Business Object Runtime Framework replaces the old Business Object framework.
C. Code generation, validation, and packaging is fully covered during the application deployment.
D. Applications for WPS V6.2 and previous releases are automatically migrated to V7.0 during
deployment.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A retail company has the requirement to make frequent changes to a long running
MyProcessDiscount business process as newer versions of that process are introduced due to changing
business needs. What approach should a deployment professional adopt to meet this requirement?
A. Stop the older version of the MyProcessDiscount process template from the Integrated
Solutions Console (ISC), install the application containing the newer version of the business process
template.
B. Use the Business Process Choreographer Explorer, select all the running instances with name
MyProcessDiscount business process, then choose the Migrate option to migrate all instances to the
currently valid version of the business
process template.
C. Use the Business Process Choreographer Explorer, if you see any running instances of older version
of MyProcessDiscount process template,
wait till all the instances of that version of the template are completed, then remove the older version of
the business process template and install the newer version of the business process template.
D. Install the application containing the newer version of MyProcessDiscount process template, then
using the Business Process Choreographer Explorer, monitor the state of the running process instances
and, when execution is in the appropriate place in the flow of the business process, select the business
process instances based on the older template only to migrate to the newer version.
Answer: D

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NO.3 A clustered WebSphere Process Server (WPS) production environment consists of a remote messaging
cluster with multiple active messaging engines (ME) configured for high throughput. During the testing of
an application which uses MQ JMS export for in-take of messages, the integration developer has found
out that the messages were arriving on the backend EIS application at random order which was not
desirable. This was not the observed behavior when the application was tested in the Universal Test
Environment (UTE) within WebSphere Integration Developer (WID).
Source Application --------> MQ JMS Export ----------> EIS Application
What is the combination of actions to reconfigure the resources in the production environment in order to
achieve the expected behavior?
A. 1, 2
B. 1, 3
C. 1, 4
D. 2, 3
Answer: A

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NO.4 An application which uses Business Processes extensively has found that there is an excessive number
of messages being sent to the hold queue. The deployment professional is asked to modify the
configuration of the Business Process Choreographer (BPC) settings for that server in an effort to reduce
the amount of messages in the hold queue. Which value should be changed to improve this situation?
A. Retry limit
B. Process limit
C. Hold queue timeout
D. Retention queue message limit
Answer: A

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NO.5 In a company all the applications deployed in a WebSphere Process Server network deployment
environment extensively leverage asynchronous messaging with JMS bindings. There is a requirement to
resubmit the messages in case of infrastructure failures or planned shutdown.
What is the suggested message reliability level that could be proposed in this situation.?
A. Assured persistent
B. Reliable persistent
C. Reliable non-persistent
D. Best effort non-persistent
Answer: A

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NO.6 A deployment professional is asked to investigate a failure in a business process. However, the specific
process instance being investigated is still running. After close examination, one of the activities of the
process instance is stopped. What action should the deployment professional take to resolve this issue so
that the current process navigation can continue?
A. Change Continue On Error setting of the process template to no but make sure this setting is
overridden at the activity scope to a value of yes.
B. Change Continue On Error setting of the process template to yes and ensure this setting is inherited at
the activity scope.
C. Examine the variables of the stopped activity and update the values as necessary, and save the
settings.
D. Set the expiration for the stopped activity so that after a specified interval the activity terminates and
the process can continue.
Answer: C

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NO.7 A deployment professional is performing a review of the audit and logging practices being used. One of
the items under review is the current level of logging configured for the Human Task Manager. The site
database administrator requires that any changes made which affect the amount and type of data being
stored to the database must be reviewed and approved prior to implementation. Which of the following log
settings would impact the data stored to the database?
A. Audit logging
B. Failed event logging
C. Task history logging
D. Common Event Infrastructure (CEI) logging
Answer: A

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NO.8 A deployment professional is installing an application which uses business processes in a clustered
WebSphere Process Server environment. The Business Process Choreographer (BPC) container has
previously been configured. During which phase of the installation is the application validated?
A. During the installation phase on the node agent.
B. During the installation phase on the deployment manager.
C. During the configuration phase on the application server.
D. During the application start phase on the application server.
Answer: B

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NO.9 A company has deployed many applications accessing the same backend services. Many of the
applications share the same WSDL and Business Objects. New applications to be deployed in the near
future will use updated backend service definitions. In addition, the memory usage has dramatically
increased over the last deployments and may prevent new application deployments on the same
environment. Which of the following recommendations would a deployment professional MOST likely
provide?
A. The development team must review the applications and provide a single module for the backend
access. Shared WSDL and Business Objects
can be deployed with the new application.
B. The development team should identify common artifacts used by the application. A shared library can
be deployed independently and
referenced by the applications.
C. The environment must be prepared for new applications by increasing the heap size of the servers or
new servers must be added to the
environment to share the workload.
D. The system administrator can deploy new applications including all libraries needed. During the
deployment the libraries of other applications with the needed WSDL and Business Objects can be
referenced as a shared library.
Answer: B

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NO.10 A deployment professional is installing a new business process application. The deployment
professional is using a script installation with the installInteractive option so that they are prompted for
values during the installation process. What is the reason for this installation approach?
A. The interactive configuration script provides an audit log of the installation for revision control
purposes.
B. Installation with the interactive configuration script is faster than using the Integrated Solutions Console
(ISC).
C. Some configuration values must be specified which are not available using the Integrated Solutions
Console (ISC) wizard interface.
D. When configuring with an interactive script, it is not necessary to specify information about the
application required data sources.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-754
Exam Name: IBM (Retail Store Solutions - Windows Technical Solutions)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 A proposal includes the 4610 1NR printer that is connected via powered USB. What are two benefits of
the proposed solution.? (Choose two.)
A. The printer provides a document insert station.
B. The printer is seen as an RS-232 device in Windows.
C. The printer has sensors that can report on the status of its components.
D. The printer can be driven by the application through direct communication.
E. The printer can be driven by the application through a Native Windows Driver.
Answer: C,E

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NO.2 Which tool can be used to duplicate the gold system?
A. IBM Director
B. Windows System Restore
C. Remote Management Agent
D. Tivoli Provisioning Manager
Answer: D

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NO.3 A customer reports that the touch panel on their IBM AnyPlace Kiosk is no longer working. Which step
should be taken to determine if the issue is hardware related?
A. test the touch panel on a SurePOS 300 system
B. install the latest version of BIOS and reset the default settings
C. test the functionality of the touch panel when in the BIOS Setup Utility
D. ensure that the latest version of touch drivers are installed on the system
Answer: C

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NO.4 After a customer has completed configuration of a Microsoft Windows POSReady 2009 preloaded
solution, and the POS is rebooted, Microsoft Windows prompts for the Administrator password to log on.
How should the technical specialist assist the customer with obtaining this password?
A. advise the customer that the Administrator password is blank
B. advise the customer to use the system serial number as the Administrator password
C. provide the customer with the default password ('password'), which is the same for all systems
D. refer the customer to the README file on the system hard drive for the password for that system
Answer: D

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NO.5 A customer wants to upgrade the operating system on their existing POS terminal hardware. What is the
most important question to consider when determining if this upgrade is possible?
A. Will the existing POS terminal's hardware support the new operating system?
B. Will the new POS terminal's hardware support the existing operating system?
C. Will the new POS printer's connectivity support the existing operating system?
D. Will the existing POS printer's connectivity support the existing operating system?
Answer: A

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NO.6 A customer is interested in the hardware system information that can be provided by RMA. When
setting up the lab environment, which component is required on the POS terminal to obtain this
information?
A. IBM Director
B. IBM UPOS driver
C. USB filter driver
D. IBM POS sensor driver
Answer: D

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NO.7 A customer is implementing a POS application that requires continuous connectivity to a host
application at the corporate office. Which network feature can this customer implement at the store-level
to ensure that connectivity to the corporate office from the store is available?
A. an in-store DNS server
B. a backup network switch
C. a backup instance of the host application
D. a dial or DSL backup for the store's WAN connection
Answer: D

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NO.8 The client team has proposed a POS system upgrade to a customer. This upgrade includes migrating
the customer from a standard LCD display to a 4820 SurePoint touchscreen which the customer wants to
use with their existing POS application. Which factor is most important for the customer to consider when
reviewing this proposed upgrade?
A. How will the 4820 SurePoint display be mounted?
B. What is the screen size of the 4820 SurePoint display?
C. Was the existing POS application designed for touch operation?
D. What is the touch technology used by the 4820 SurePoint display?
Answer: C

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NO.9 A customer is upgrading their POS application. The new application will store all data and configurations
on the store server, which has redundant disks. The customer is concerned about using disk space wisely
and would like a plan that has a short recovery period. Which backup plan is most appropriate for this
customer?
A. perform a nightly backup of all terminals to be stored on the store server
B. perform a nightly backup of the store server to be stored on an external backup drive
C. perform a weekly backup of all terminals to be stored on the terminal's internal hard drive
D. perform a weekly backup of the store server to be stored on the server's internal hard drive
Answer: B

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NO.10 A customer is upgrading their store system to include new POS terminal hardware and
peripherals, new store servers, and a new POS application. What is the best time to begin the store
migration project to reduce the impact on the store and allow time for system testing?
A. after the store opens the day of the migration
B. after the store closes the day of the migration
C. before the store opens the day of the migration
D. before the store closes the day of the migration
Answer: B

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Exam Name: IBM (IBM Initiate Master Data Service Support Mastery Test v1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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Which of the following materials are needed to diagnose the performance problem?
A. Oracle AWR (Automatic Workload Repository) report
B. Master Data Engine logs with MAD_TIMER logging enabled
C. Entity Manager logs with MAD_TIMER logging enabled
D. all of the above
Answer: D

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A. Application log files named outside of standard conventions.
B. Network bandwidth between Master Data Service server and database server.
C. CPU usage on server running the Master Data Service.
D. Master Data Service logfile verbosity setting.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following DOES NOT represent a valid store of Initiate knowledge that can be referenced
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A. Knowledge Base on website
B. Infocenters (online product documentation library)
C. online training courses
D. LDAP repository
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which tab in Initiate Inspector should be selected when you need to unlink a Record from an Entity.?
A. Records
B. Attribute History
C. Linkage Details
D. Relationships
Answer: D

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NO.5 In which of the following places can you NOT find the detailed descriptions for the Initiate Java SDK
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A. In the doc directory included with the Java SDK installation software.
B. The Java SDK Reference Guide document that was included with your software.
C. Infocenters
D. By pressing F1 (Help) in the Initiate I.D.E. for Java.
Answer: D

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Exam Name: IBM (IBM Datacap Taskmaster Capture Practical App Tech Mastery V1)
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Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 .Detecting whether a form is signed is typically done with:
A. OCR
B. ICR
C. OMR
D. Parascript
Answer: C

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NO.2 The saved runtime batch structure, containing document and pages for a particular batch, is called
what?
A. The page file.
B. The Admin Database.
C. The task file.
D. The batch data file.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following is TRUE?
A. Actions are capable of reformatting dates.
B. Actions cannot change the value of a field.
C. Actions use message boxes to immediately report a failed rule.
D. All of the above.
Answer: A

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NO.1 IBM Content Manager v8.4.1 added an important functionality. What is it?
A. Ability to call out to FileNet BPM processes
B. LDAP integration capability with Microsoft Active Directory
C. Integration with TSM DR-550 Server
D. Use of Tivoli Total Access Manager in lieu of AD
Answer: A

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NO.2 In IBM Content Manager v8.4, the WEBi Client is available as well as the eClient. What would
determine your choice of a client as of the Webi version 1.0.3?
A. eClient can do email
B. Client for Windows cannot do email
C. WEBi does not yet recognize advanced document routing decision making
D. eClient can recognize versions in CM
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are the different Item Types that can be created in IBM Content Manger v8?
A. Item and Document
B. Resource and File
C. Item, Document, Resource and Document Part
D. Item, Document, Resource and File
Answer: C

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NO.4 Event logging is set in the System Administration tool for: .?
A. Each itemtype part
B. All itemtypes alike
C. An itemtype
D. Worknode
Answer: C

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NO.5 Event logging is stored in:
A. A file
B. The Library Server Database
C. The Resource Manager Database
D. The Websphere Database
Answer: B

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NO.1 A client requires that a new BPEL process return a fault message to the requester in case the
process does not complete correctly. The integration developer has added a fault handler to the
process to catch all exceptions. How should the integration developer return the fault message?
A. Use a throw activity of a business fault.
B. Use a reply activity using a standard fault.
C. Use a reply activity using a business fault defined in the interface.
D. Use a rethrow activity in the fault handler on the process scope using a fault defined in the
interface.
Answer: C

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NO.2 During acceptance testing of an integration solution, various errors in the mediation flows
were discovered. While correcting these errors, the development team found that little or no error
handling was present within the mediation flows. Therefore, a new requirement is introduced to
handle every exception within any mediation flow in exactly the same way by logging the exception
to a file. How can an integration developer implement this requirement?
A. Connect a trace primitive to each fail terminal.
B. Create a mediation flow containing the exception handling logic, and invoke it whenever an error
occurs.
C. Create a mediation subflow containing the exception handling logic, and connect every fail
terminal to this new subflow.
D. Create a mediation subflow containing the exception handling logic, and connect the error input
node of each mediation flow to this new subflow.
Answer: D

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NO.3 An integration developer wants to use the Installation Manager to apply product updates.
Which of the following is the correct behavior of the Installation Manger regarding plug-ins?
A. As product updates are applied older version of plug-ins must be manually uninstalled.
B. As product updates are applied older versions of plug-ins are automatically uninstalled.
C. Older versions of plug-ins remain as product updates are applied.
D. Older versions of plug-ins need to be removed using the installation manager prior to newer
product updates being applied.
Answer: B

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NO.4 An integration developer is modeling a human interaction and is trying to decide what type of
human task to use. What advice should be given to the integration developer when considering
using an in-line human task? The integration developer should select the in-line human task if the
task:
A. needs to call other services.
B. provides just another service.
C. needs access to process related information.
D. will eventually be called as an SCA module in the future.
Answer: C

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NO.5 An integration developer needs to implement a human task in an integration solution. If
reusability is a priority, then the integration developer should develop:
A. a collaboration task, since it can be a parent task.
B. an administration task, since it is a reusable activity.
C. a to-do task, since it has access to the process context.
D. an invocation task, since it can be attached to a process.
Answer: A

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NO.6 An integration developer is planning to create a BPEL process to help with the management of
customer requests. The developer is intending to use a short-running process for the
implementation because it has been determined that the performance of the process is a high
priority, but the process must also be able to compensate for changes to the customer's request.
What approach should the integration developer take while implementing this process?
A. Implement the short-running process as planned, but call the appropriate compensation activity
from a fault handler in the process.
B. Implement the short-running process as planned, but associate an undo-operation with the
appropriate invoke activity in the process.
C. Since compensation is not supported in short-running processes, implement a long-running
process using compensation pairs.
D. Since compensation is not supported in short-running processes, use a compensation handler
and a compensation pair together in the log-running process
Answer: B

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NO.7 A microflow calls a long-running process using a two-way request/response synchronous
operation. What can be a consequence of using this pattern?
A. It will be easier to implement Exception Handling in the microflow.
B. When the long-running process completes, the microflow transaction will be committed.
C. The transaction and threads used by the microflow will be tied up until the long-running process
finishes.
D. Compensation logic will need to be implemented in the long-running process to ensure the
delivery of the reply to the microflow.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which context should an integration developer assign to the Service Message Object (SMO)
for a mediation flow with aggregation primitives (fan-out and fan-in) to temporarily store responses
from service invocations?
A. Shared
B. FailInfo
C. Transient
D. Correlation
Answer: A

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