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Exam Code: 000-603

Exam Name: IBM (IBM System z Solution Sales V6)

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NO.1 A customer requested System z software details and pricing. Which IBM tool would be utilized to
configure the software products?
A. zPCR
B. zIAW
C. eConfig
D. CFSW
Answer: D

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NO.2 A customer recently ordered a zEnterprise with a zBX. Which of the following is the best action the sales
specialist could take to ensure the customer is satisfied with the new zBX?
A. Propose a Fit For Purpose Study
B. Schedule an implementation planning meeting
C. Propose Extended Warranty Contract for the zBX
D. Propose an Early Ship Program (ESP) for running their AIX applications
Answer: B

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NO.3 A customer is considering Linux solution. There are several competitive solutions under consideration.
The System z sales specialist is considering System z Solution Edition for Enterprise Linux or an IBM
Enterprise Linux Server. Which of the following is included in these offering.?
A. Predefined hardware, software, services
B. Predefined hardware, Linux subscription, and Linux services
C. IBM middleware, Extended Warranty, VMContol
D. RACF, zAAP , DirMaint
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following is a key benefit to customers who deploy zEnterprise compared to other
solutions?
A. Virtualization and hardware management across multiple platforms
B. A management solution that provides support across multiple x86 hypervisors.
C. A management solution for the complete mulit-vendor infrastructure within a datacenter.
D. A hypervisor infrastructure that allows movement of an application online between different
architectures.
Answer: A

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NO.5 A System z Sales Specialist is preparing a proposal for a z10 customer for a potential upgrade to
zEnterprise system. They need to propose a z196 model with 20% growth to the existing capacity. How
can the seller best determine the right model for the customer?
A. Refer to the MIPS table to find the matching model
B. Discuss with the customer to find out what is their preferred model
C. Engage Techline to perform capacity planning on the current machine
D. Use Sales Plays to find correct model
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-565

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 Implementation)

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NO.1 Which two statements are true about installing IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 (ITNMJ on
a Solaris platform? {Choose two.)
A. The ITNM destination directory must be owned as root.
B. If ITNM is installed as a non-root user, all future Tivoli products must be installed as the same user.
C. The setup_setuid_as_root.sh script must be run as root if ITNM is installed and will run as non-root.
D. The setup_setuid_as_root.sh script must be run as non-root if ITNM is installed and will run as
non-root.
E. Multiple ITNM installations on the same server can be installed with both the root account and a
non-root account.
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 A company wants to create a new drop-down list that an operator can use when creating new dynamic
network views. The list will hold the customerName and customerLocation information. This information
was collected during the discovery phase and added to the model. The administrator has already
extended the NCIM database with a new table called Customer which has two fields: customerName and
customerLocation. The model has been configured to populate this new table. Which additional step does
the administrator need to take to display the new table in the dropdown list?
A. add this table to the appropriate section in the topoviz.properties
B. modify the ncimMetaDataxml file by adding the appropriate table and data fields
C. modify the DBEntityDetails.cfg file by specifying a new drop-down list and the name of the table
created in the NCIM database
D. no additional step is required as the network view configuration automatically has access to all of the
tables in the NCIM database and will create a drop-down list for each and every table
Answer: B

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NO.3 By default, which three fields are used by the event gateway to link an event to a topology entity?
(Choose three.)
A. @Node
B. @Class
C. @bEventld
D. @Identifier
E. @LocalPriObj
F. @LocalNodeAlias
Answer: C,E,F

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NO.4 During a deployment, a customer has identified location data that they would like added to both
chassis and interface events from active (IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 (ITNM)) and
passive (traps, syslog etc.) event sources.
This data has been successfully imported into the Discovery process using supported stitching
techniques and appears in the topology as three custom Extralnfo fields (see below).
Ncpjnode1 has been configured to transfer this location data to a custom extended NCIM database table
named locations (see exhibit below). This data is only held on EntityType 1 (chassis entities) to reduce the
NCIM load.
The customer has identified three ObjectServer fields that they would like this data :o be added to for all
suitable events -NmosGeography, NmosCountry, and NmosSite
Example record in Model Description of the ncim.locations table
The ModelNcimDb cofiguration has been modified to map:
Based on the scenario, what is the correct stitcher method to populate a record with Extralnfo >
m_Geogrpahy location data and then update the NmosGeography ObjectServer field?
Assume that a chassis and locationData Records have been defined and the mainNodeld is set to the
Entityld of the chassis of the in scope event.
Example:
Record chassis;
Record locationData.
text geog-'.
chassis = GwEntityData( mainNodeld);
A. geog=@chassis.tocations.GEOGRAPHY; @locationData.NmosGeography = geog.
GwEnrichEvent( locationData);
B. geog=@chassis.Extralnfo.m_Geography; @locationData.NmosGeography = geog;
GwEnrichEvent(locationData);
C. NmosGeography = eval(text, '&8<Extralnfo->m_Geography'); GwEnrichEvent (NmosGeography);
D. NmosGeogrpahy = @chassis.locations.GEOGRAPHY; @locationData.NmosGeography = eval(text,
'$NmosGeography'); GwEnrichEvent (locationData);
Answer: A

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NO.5 How can discovery be configured to run at 7:00 p.m. every night?
A. run the script $PRECI`SION_HOME/scripts/perl/scripts/ncp_autodiscovery.pl 1900
B. edit the SPRECISIONJHOMBdisco/stitchers/FullDiscovery.stch file and add in the line within
the StitcherTrigger section:
ActOnDemand(( m_TimeOfDay) values (1900););
C. edit the $PRECISION_HOME/disco/stitchers/FullDiscovery.stch file and add in the line within
the StitcherTrigger section:
ActOnTimedTrigger(( m_TimeOfDay) values (1900););
D. edit the $PRECISION_HOME/disco/stitchers/FullDiscovery stch stitcher and add in the line
within the StitcherRules section:
ActOnDemand(( m_TimeOfDay) values (1900););
Answer: C

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NO.6 A customer wants to deploy IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 (ITNM) in their environment.
They plan to discover and monitor specific various network devices and servers that are throughout their
enterprise. The customer wants to ensure that they manage only a list of devices in their network with a
specific naming convention. They currently keep track of these devices using a CSV file of IP addresses,
hostnames and locations and have SNMP and ping access to these systems. Currently their DNS server
and SysName naming conventions are not consistent. The customer also wants to ensure that they do
not discover IP addresses outside the CSV list.
Which discovery seeding method best suits their ITNM configuration?
A. configure the Collector Finder by seeding the discovery and converting the CSV file to an XML file
B. configure the Ping Finder by adding a list of subnets from the list of IP addresses using the CSV file
C. configure the File Finder to point to the CSV file on the Network Manager server with a comma
delimiter
D. ensure Feedback is enabled and then configure the Ping Finder and the File Finder by adding a list of
subnets using the CSV file
Answer: C

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NO.7 What does this entry do in the DiscoCollectorFinderSeeds.DOMAIN.cfg in IBM Tivoli Network Manager
IP Edition V3.9 (ITNM).?
insert into collectorFinder.collectorRules ( m_Host, m_Port, m_NumRetries ) values ( "172.16.25.1", 8082,
5 ) ;
A. The collector agent running on the ITNM server connects to the EMS running on port 8082 to collect its
data.
B. The collector agent running on the ITNM server connects to the collector running on port 8082 to
collect its data.
C. The collector agent running on 172 16 25 1 connects locally to the collector running on port 8082 to
collect its data.
D. The collector agent running on the ITNM server connects to the collector running on 172.16.25 1 port
8082 to collect its data.
Answer: D

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NO.8 In IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 given a requirement to discover a new node but not
place it in the topology correctly, which two tasks must be performed when doing partial rediscovery?
(Choose two.)
A. ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery Rebuild Layers
is checked
B. ensure the necessary agents are enabled under Network Discovery Configuration > Partial
Rediscovery Agents tab
C. ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery Rebuild Layers
is unchecked
D. ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery of Related
Devices is checked
E. ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery of Related
Devices is unchecked
Answer: B,C

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NO.9 The IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 administrator received a request to create a new
domain with a default set of configuration files and poll policies. A Dbl_ogins.DOMAIN.cfg file has already
been created with the appropriate access details. Which action must be taken?
A. rundomain_create.pl -domain <DOMAIN>
B. rundomain_create.pl -domain <DOMAIN> -default
C. manually insert the domain details into the ncim.domainMgr table
D. start the ncp_ctrl process for the new domain name - defaults will be applied
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is the primary issue with installing IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 (ITNM) as a root
user on a single UNIX system in combination with other Tivoli products?
A. The system will not run properly as a root user.
B. ITNM might not be compatible with other Tivoli products.
C. There are no issues related to installing as root on a UNIX system.
D. There are extra post-installation configuration steps to complete in order to run the core components
as the root user.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which file contains the SNMP community strings and settings for an IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP
Edition V3.9 (ITNM) domain named ITNM NCP?
A. CtrlServices.ITNM_NCP.cfg
B. SnmpStackSchema.ITNM_NCP.cfg
C. SnmpStackSecuritylnfo.ITNM_NCP.cfg
D. DiscoSnmpHelperSchema.ITNM_NCP.cfg
Answer: C

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NO.12 In IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 what leads to Fatal messages in the message level log
of a ncp process?
A. process is hung
B. process is terminated
C. process has not started
D. process is running with errors
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which restriction is in place when using a silent install mode?
A. The installation process cannot be canceled at any time
B. The silent install file cannot be edited after it has been created.
C. The silent install file cannot be moved between hosts and then reused.
D. The silent install mode is only suitable for a default standard installation
Answer: A

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NO.14 The scope of the discovery contains the IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 (ITNM) server
and the gateway trace file shows that this is being used successfully as the correct NcpServerEntity.
However, the isolated suppression method is not working. What would cause this?
A. The ITNM server is not being directly polled for status.
B. The ITNM server is not connected to the rest of the topology.
C. There was no SNMP access to the ITNM server so the IP address is not known.
D. The Root Cause Analysis plug-in has not been explicitly configured to use the ITNM server.
Answer: B

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NO.15 A custom event has been added requiring the creation of a new EventMap. How is this EventMap
associated with the RCA plug-in?
A. register the EventMap with the RCA plug-in using the ncp_gwplugins.pl script
B. ensure that the Eventld is mapped to the EventMap in the NcoGatelnserts.cfg file
C. edit the EventGatewaySchema.cfg and include the EventMap in the ncp2nco section
D. no action needed - any EventMap in the EventGatewaySchema.cfg file will be passed to the RCA
plug-in by default
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which scenario is suitable for using default adaptive polls?
A. rapid confirmation that the poll is active
B. rapid confirmation that a device is down
C. rapid confirmation of a threshold resolution
D. rapid confirmation that a device is functioning
Answer: B

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NO.17 How should an administrator deploy IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 using a command line
installation on a Windows system?
A. console_install.exe
B. launchpad_console.exe
C. launchpad.exe -console
D. install.exe -i console
Answer: D

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NO.18 If NCIM replication is enabled, which statement is true?
A. Only IBM DB2 can be used for NCIM replication.
B. Two NCIM databases exist, one in the primary domain and one in the backup domain.
C. IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 (ITNM) must connect to a pair of virtual ObjectServers.
D. There will only be one ncp_g_event running for all of ITNM.
Answer: B

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NO.19 Aside from the number of devices being discovered, what is the most important information to gather
when determining the number of needed domains?
A. number of polling engines
B. number of users that will use the portal
C. average number of interfaces per device
D. number of active poll definitions and intervals
Answer: C

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NO.20 A customer wants to add some logic around specific IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 poller
generated events. Where would an administrator put this logic?
A. add an exception filter clause to the ncmonitor.noEvent table
B. modify the nco_p_ncpmonitor rules file to include the required logic
C. modify the ncp_poller event generation ruleset to prevent the events from being sent
D. change the EventGatewaySchema.cfg configuration file to prevent the events from reaching the
ObjectServer
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-M227

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Datacap Taskmaster Capture Sales Mastery Test v1 )

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NO.1 Rulerunner service handles all of the following EXCEPT: .
A. Applying rules to schedule standard scanner maintenance.
B. Page/Doc identification.
C. Various inputs, including eDocs.
D. Business rules and validations.
Answer: C

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NO.2 All of the following are ways to sort documents into categories EXCEPT:
A. Barcode.
B. Keyword.
C. Timestamp matching.
D. Text analytics.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which is NOT part of the document capture process?
A. Recognition of document.
B. Verifying data on page.
C. Search and viewing document image by customer support.
D. Exporting information.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-188

Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Lombardi Edition V7.2, BPM Program Management )

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NO.1 The BPM Program Manager, Process Owner, and Lead Developer are collaborating to define the theme
and assign user stories for the next iteration. The team is planning the 7th of 15 iterations in the Release
Plan for Release One. The Program Manager displays a Team Velocity chart showing that the
Development team has shown significant growth in story points accepted from iterations 1 to 4 and has
been leveling off to roughly 200 story points in iterations 5 and 6.
Given there are 9 iterations remaining in the release plan, the Process Owner immediately recognizes
there is room for roughly 1800 story points in the remaining time for Release One. However, the backlog
contains 2400 story points marked as "high" priority and another 1200 story points marked as "medium"
priority. The Process Owner asks to reduce the points assessed to the high priority user stories to bring
the total points down to roughly 1800 so as to make them fit in the remaining time. The Program Manager
agrees.
What is wrong with this scenario.?
A. This is a conversation for a Release Planning meeting and not during Iteration Planning.
B. Team Velocity is fixed and changing the method of estimating story points mid-way through a release
will not increase the scope of work that can be completed.
C. Process Owner forgot to include a risk factor of 1.4 that should be applied to 1800 resulting in roughly
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D. Both "high" and "medium" priority stories should be included in the Release Plan meaning all user story
points should be reduced by 50% to get all high/medium priority stories to fit in 1800 points remaining
(2400+1200 = 3600 : 3600/2 = 1800).
Answer: B

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NO.2 It is discovered while running Playback 0 that an important but not strictly necessary sub-process was
missed in the analysis. How should the program manager recommend handling the missed sub-process?
A. Redo Playback 0 and include the sub process.
B. Note the sub-process as a user story and save it for the next release.
C. Include the sub-process in Playback 1 without validating with the process owner.
D. Schedule a special iteration and playback to address the sub-process after Playback 3.
Answer: B

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ensure that the solution developed by the team will be accepted and adopted by the target users. To
facilitate this, they decide to:
A. plan additional playbacks for user screens.
B. agree with users to postpone the release until every feature is correct.
C. involve champion SMEs in the discovery and implementation including playbacks.
D. insist on documentation of all user requirements before having the development team begin work.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 00M-646

Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Sales Mastery Test v5)

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NO.1 Which PartnerWorld resource would you leverage to find out about promotions, programs, and
Announcements.?
A. Sales Plays
B. WebSphere Virtual Sales Assistant
C. WebSphere Feature Packs
D. WebSphere Top Gun Offerings
Answer: A

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NO.2 Using analytics to determine next steps in process improvement enables:
A. Implementation of new business rules by business analysts.
B. Improved alignment of ROI and process performance.
C. Comparisons of current operational performance with trends, which providesactionableinformation
about how to further improve business processes.
D. Faster financial approval of process improvement projects.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What WebSphere capability enables consistent application responsiveness during spikes in demand?
A. Mediation services
B. Business transaction integrity
C. Elastic caching
D. Business activity monitoring
Answer: C

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NO.4 The goal of the application life cycle discovery conversation is to:
A. Introduce WebSphere application development products.
B. Debate the real costs of open source middleware.
C. Uncover the challenges of open source adoption.
D. Introduce customer references.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Per the Business Process Improvement with BPM Whiteboard discussion, the BPM capabilities include:
A. Automation, monitoring, optimization, governance, and integration.
B. Modeling, integration, optimization, governance, and security.
C. Discovery, automation, monitoring, analysis, and governance.
D. Automation, discovery, optimization, analysis, and governance.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-572

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.3 Administration)

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NO.1 What has the most up to date information about supported components to help plan an installation?
A. Quick Install Guide
B. Administrator Guide
C. Installation and Setup Guide
D. Software Product Compatibility Reports
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which statement is true about the Tivoli Monitoring Startup Center.?
A. it upgrades the current environment
B. it is a prerequisite component that must be installed
C. it deploys an entire IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.3 environment
D. it helps discover all monitored servers and any Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring agents
Answer: C

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NO.3 What does the activation of the self-describing agent feature trigger?
A. The agent configuration information is stored in a central inventory database.
B. The agent platform-specific information is stored in the Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server embedded
database.
C. The agent environment file is given to the Warehouse Proxy agent and stored in the Tivoli Data
Warehouse.
D. The agent application support files are distributed to and installed on all Tivoli Enterprise Management
Servers.
Answer: D

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NO.4 What are two ways to configure historical data collection? (Choose two.)
A. use the Command Line Interface history set of tacmd commands
B. through the History Collection Configuration window in the Tivoli Enterprise Portal
C. log into the Summarization and Pruning Agent GUI and select Configure Historical Data Collection
D. use the separately installed Historical Data Collection Tool and connect to the Tivoli Data Warehouse
E. right-click the Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server icon in the Manage Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring
Services GUI and select Historical Data Collection
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 The firewall gateway feature in IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.3 is intended for which communication
scenario?
A. remote Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server (TEMS) to Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server (TEPS)
B. Hub TEMS to IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus /Tivoli Enterprise Console
C. Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Agent to remote TEMS
D. TEPS to Hub TEMS
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which three APIs are used by the IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.3 agent less monitoring agent to monitor
multiple sources? (Choose three.)
A. CIM
B. Java
C. WMI
D. SNMP
E. POSIX
F. .NET Framework
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.7 Which database and version is supported by IBM Tivoli Data Warehouse?
A. Oracle 9g
B. Oracle 10g
C. IBMDB2V8.5
D. IBM DB2 V7.2
Answer: B

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NO.8 How can a company monitor DHCP and DNS services on a Windows-based host?
A. use the out-of-the-box Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Agent (TEMA) for the Windows operating system
B. use the TEMA for DHCP and TEMA for DNS
C. use the Universal Agent DHCP and DNS data provider
D. builds a custom agent using the Performance Proxy Agent
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which two tools can be used so custom attributes are available in a view? (Choose two.)
A. IBM Tivoli System Agent
B. IBM Tivoli Universal Agent
C. IBM Tivoli Autonomous Agent
D. IBM Tivoli OS Agent Extension
E. IBM Tivoli Monitoring Agent Builder
Answer: B,E

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NO.10 A customer wants to monitor critical processes on their Unix servers. During the analysis it is found that
this will require the use of regular expressions. Can this be done using IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.3
(ITM)?
A. Yes. but a Universal agent is required.
B. Yes; but a custom agent must be built using the Agent Builder.
C. Yes; use the Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Agent for Unix operating systems.
D. No; ITM does not support the use of regular expressions for the names of processes.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which additional software component must be installed on an IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus or IBM Tivoli
Enterprise Console system to enable bi-directional communication for event flow?
A. IBM Tivoli Event Exchanger
B. IBM Tivoli Alarm Synchronization
C. IBM Tivoli Situation Update Forwarder
D. IBM Tivoli Alert Two-Way Synchronization
Answer: C

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NO.12 In IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.3, which condition should be true if the database used for the data
warehouse is Microsoft SQL Server?
A. the Warehouse Proxy agent should be installed on Windows
B. the Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server should be installed on Windows
C. the Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server should be installed on Windows
D. the Summarization and Pruning agent should be installed on Windows
Answer: B

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NO.13 What is the last component to be upgraded from IBM Tivoli Monitoring (ITM) V6.xto V6.2.3?
A. monitoring agent
B. event synchronization
C. Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server
D. Tivoli Enterprise Portal desktop client
Answer: A

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NO.14 When configuring a remote server in a High Availability scenario with Hot Standby for IBM Tivoli
Monitoring V6.2.3. what must be specified during the remote server configuration?
A. only the primary hub monitoring server must be specified
B. only the secondary hub monitoring server must be specified
C. both the primary and secondary hub monitoring servers must be specified D. both the primary and
secondary hub monitoring servers must be specified for the operating system with the remote server
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which two Windows platforms can be used to install a Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server? (Choose
two.)
A. Windows Server 2008 Standard Edition on Intel x86-32 (32 bit)
B. Windows Server 2008 Standard Edition on Itanium IA64 (64 bit)
C. Windows Server 2008 Enterprise Edition on Intel X86-64 (64 bit)
D. Windows Server 2008 Datacenter Edition on Intel X86-32 (32 bit)
E. Windows Server 2008 Datacenter Edition on Intel x86-64 (64 bit)
Answer: A,C

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Exam Code: 00M-645

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos Business Intelligence Sales Mastery Test v2)

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NO.1 According to studies by IBM and Gartner, what do CIOs list as their number one concern?
A. Compliance
B. Business analytics
C. Mobility solutions
D. Risk management
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is a high-yield question when positioning IBM Cognos BI to the CIO of an organization?
A. Do your users trust the data that they have access to?
B. How do you identify outliers in your business?
C. How do you handle information requests from the business?
D. What happens when management is not able to get information they need quickly?
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which major differentiator did version 10 introduce to the IBM Cognos BI interface.?
A. Separate workspaces for distinct roles.
B. Unified workspace for all users.
C. Mobile support for all functionality.
D. Ad hoc reporting capabilities.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is NOT a major advantage that IBM Cognos BI products have over the competition?
A. Promotion of self-service.
B. Ability to consume information in a variety of formats, languages, and devices.
C. Consistency and accessibility from a wide range of data sources across the entire organization.
D. Ability to build and automate business processes.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-N08

Exam Name: IBM (IBM InfoSphere Streams Technical Mastery Test v1)

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NO.1 Which host tags are defined by Streams?
A. compile, execute
B. execution, build
C. build, run
D. compile, run
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which Streams Studio component displays output generated by running various streamtool commands?
A. Console
B. Error Log file
C. SPL Application Graph
D. Project Explorer
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which statement is CORRECT.?
A. A composite operator does not belong to any namespace.
B. All operators in a composite operator must belong to the same namespace.
C. Primitive operators all belong to the com.ibm.primitive name space.
D. It is always acceptable to use fully qualified operator names (i.e. names that include the namespace).
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which statement is TRUE regarding InfoSphere Streams?
A. A stream is defined as an infinite sequence of tuples.
B. The tuples in a stream can be of different types.
C. A Processing Element (PE) can only contain a single operator.
D. An operator port can accept streams of different types as long as they are properly defined.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which command gives the health status of the individual processing elements of a submitted Streams
job?
A. streamtool lsjobs
B. streamtool lspes
C. streamtool getresourcestate
D. streamtool getnsentry
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 00M-643

Exam Name: IBM (Information Management Solution Sales Mastery Test v4 )

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NO.1 Which customer challenge is most directly addressed by the Define and Govern facet of the IBM
Information Agenda?
A. inflexible infrastructure
B. information not viewed as an asset
C. lack of business/IT alignment
D. lack of organizational awareness
Answer: D

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NO.2 A customer is looking for a software solution to extract data from heterogeneous sources, transform the
data to meet operational standards, and then load the data into their warehouse. Which IBM offering best
meets their needs?
A. IBM InfoSphere Warehouse
B. IBM InfoSphere Information Server
C. IBM InfoSphere Master Data Management
D. IBM InfoSphere Optim
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer currently has petabytes of data across heterogeneous sources. They want IBM to design a
solution to extract that data and store it in a centralized database that supports mining, cubing, and
analytics processes. They also want to improve the quality of their data by creating common data models
and consolidating duplicate records. Which IBM product is NOT a necessary component in the solution?
A. IBM InfoSphere Information Server
B. IBM InfoSphere Guardium
C. IBM InfoSphere Warehouse
D. IBM InfoSphere Master Data Management
Answer: B

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NO.4 What are two analytics capabilities of IBM InfoSphere Warehouse?
A. statistical visualization and reporting
B. dashboards and scorecards
C. cubing services and text mining
D. what-if and scenario modeling
Answer: C

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NO.5 IBM IMS is designed for large-scale applications running on which operating system.?
A. AIX
B. Solaris
C. IBM i
D. z/OS
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-M97

Exam Name: IBM (IBM BigInsights Technical Mastery Test v1 )

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NO.1 What mode is best suited for application developers?
A. Standalone (local) mode.
B. Pseudo-distributed mode.
C. Fully-distributed mode.
D. It does not matter, all are about the same.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Hadoop is configured with FAIR scheduler. We have three queues defined : production, development,
and QA. The production queue has a minimum share defined as 5. Other queues do not have minimum
shares defined. QA has a weight defined as 2. Other queues do not have weight associated with them.
Assuming that Production queue has demand of 100 tasks, Development of 30 tasks, and QA of 25 tasks
with total of 30 tasks available in JobTracker for all queues, how many tasks per queue will be allocated.?
A. Production: 5, Development: 10, QA: 15
B. Production: 10, Development: 10, QA: 10
C. Production: 8, Development: 8, QA: 14
D. Production: 6, Development: 6, QA: 18
Answer: C

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NO.3 To help firms analyze text-based data, BigInsights provides which of the following?
A. A runtime library of text annotators that can be invoked from Pig.
B. A runtime library of text annotators that can be invoked from HQL (Hive).
C. A runtime library of text annotators that can be invoked from Jaql.
D. A runtime library of text annotators that can be invoked from Flume.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following statements is correct?
A. All nodes in the cluster should have the same hardware.
B. Master nodes need to have more reliable hardware than slave nodes.
C. Slave nodes need to have more reliable hardware than master nodes.
D. All nodes in the cluster must have reliable hardware except for disks.
Answer: B

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NO.5 What will happen when a NameNode runs out of memory?
A. It will crash.
B. It will start swapping data to disk as long as swappiness is greater than 0.
C. It will move part of the workload to secondary name node.
D. It will start delaying some jobs to accommodate currently running jobs.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 00M-609

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Insurance Industry Solutions Sales Mastery Test v1 Exam )

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NO.1 What is one of three items that top performers in the insurance industry are focused on?
A. Their needs
B. The customer
C. The trends for database technology
D. IBM standards
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is one of the innovations for channels that is new on the horizon?
A. Automated language translation
B. Automated billing
C. Automated data processing
D. Automated payments
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is growing exponentially and has implications for the insurance industry?
A. Mobile data processing
B. Digital communications
C. Digital data processing
D. Digital data storage
Answer: D

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NO.4 What do insurers need to develop to meet customers ¯ needs
A. Fewer branch offices
B. Less diverse product offerings
C. Configurable set of insurance products
D. More complicated product offerings
Answer: A

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NO.5 What do insurers need to have in place for processes and systems to really become a partner in risk
management?
A. A need to take on risk at an enterprise and an individual level
B. An understanding of risk at an enterprise and an individual level
C. A business case for reducing risk
D. More documentation
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 3200.1

Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Modular Messaging with Avaya Message Store Implementation and Maintenance Exam)

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NO.1 A technician is installing Outlook Thick Client (OIC).
Which ports on the network need to be opened to allow communications to the Modular Messaging
system?
A. Ports 21 or 23
B. Ports 21 and 443
C. Ports 25, 143, and 389
D. Ports 25, 143, and 5001
Answer: C

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NO.2 As part of the initial installation, configuring the "Offline Access" is important in case there is problem
with the Message Application Servers (MAS) accessing the Message Storage Server (MSS). At which
point in the insinuation process should the "Offline Access" be configured?
A. when configuring the Web Subscriber options
B. only after the MSS is configured
C. when configuring the primary MAS
D. only after all the MASs are configured
Answer: D

Avaya   3200.1   3200.1

NO.3 A customer is migrating from Modular Messaging 3.0 on a S3400 server to Modular Messaging
5.2. Which two pieces of information must be obtained to successfully complete this migration? (Choose
two.)
A. the PBX translations
B. the original planning forms for the system that runs on release 3.0
C. the latest analyzed DCT file for the system
D. the private Messaging Application Server (MAS) and Messaging Storage Server (MSS) NetBIOS name
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 A customer had a catastrophic failure, and has just finished reloading a system. They would like to
restore all their data horn an ftp/sftp backup. Which statement described the first Step to restoring their
data in this manner?
A. Stop the voice system processing.
B. Install the latest service pack and patches.
C. Administer the TCP/IP settings
D. Reboot the Messaging Storage Server (MSS).
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which backup type is supported for the Avaya Modular Messaging Single Server?
A. Type 2 or 4 DVD RAM cartridge
B. DVD-RW disk
C. FTP/SFTP backup
D. Norton Ghost
Answer: C

Avaya   3200.1   3200.1

NO.6 A technician is installing a service park on a Modular Messaging Single Server. The technician has
copied the updates to the server using the System Platform.
In which folder on the Messaging Application Server (MAS) will the technician find the updates.?
A. C:\Avaya_ Support\Updates
B. C:\Avaya Modular Messaging\Patch Cache
C. C:\Important_Files
D. C:\MM_PATCH_FILES
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which three are steps to finish Message Storage Server (MSS) administration? (Choose three.)
A. Administer Classes of Service (CoS).
B. Enter the final IP addresses.
C. Administer switch integration.
D. Place the MSS in a Windows domain.
E. Administer special mailboxes.
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.8 Which three are pre installation tasks that Avaya recommends for the initial installation of the Modular
Messaging 5.2 system? (Choose three.)
A. Download the software updates and service packs.
B. Run the backup and verification tool.
C. Complete the Data Collection Tool data file.
D. Acquire the RFA authorization file.
E. Download the Configuration Notes.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.9 A technician is installing a now Avaya Modular Messaging 5.2 Single Server. The customer wants to
include a Web Client server in the installation.
Which two statements about the Web Client are true? (Choose two.)
A. Web Client can be installed on a separate server from Avaya Modular Messaging.
B. Web Client can be installed as a virtual machine on the System Platform Server.
C. Web Client is not supported by Avaya Modular Messaging 5.2 Single Server.
D. Web Client software should be installed on the Message Application Server (MAS) virtual machine.
Answer: C,D

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NO.10 When considering password security, mailbox passwords can be required to have a specific length.
What is the default minimum subscriber password length, and what is the maximum length the word can
be set to?
A. Default 6; Maximum 10
B. Default 6; Maximum 20
C. Default 4; Maximum l5
D. Default 4; Maximum 10
E. Default 5; Maximum 10
Answer: C

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